Saturday, 30 May 2015

CAPGEMINI - Reasoning

Capgemini – Reasoning

Question (1-4) A question is asked with two statement following it. You will have to answer the question based on the following: 
A)        I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B)        II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C)        Either I or II is sufficient
D)        Neither I nor II is sufficient
E)         Both I and II are sufficient

1.       Is the GDP of country X higher than Country Y? 
Statements:
i. GDPs of X and Y have been increasing at a compounded annual growth rate of 5% and 6% over the past 5 yrs
ii. 5 years ago GDP of X was 1.2 times of Y
Ans: (E)

2.       A boat can ferry 1500 passengers across a river in 12 hrs. How many round trips does it make during the journey? 
Statements:
i. The boat can carry 400 passengers at a time
ii. During its journey, the boat takes 40 minutes time each way and 20 minutes waiting time at each end.
Ans: (E)

3.       What are the values of m and n? 
Statements:
i. n is an even integer, m is odd integer and m is greater than n.
ii. The product of m and n is 30
Ans: (E)

4.       How much is the weight of 20 mangoes and 30 oranges? 
Statements:
i. 1 orange weighs twice that of 1 mango
ii. 2 mangoes and 3 oranges weigh 2 kg
Ans: (B)

Direction for Question 5- 8:   Read the following and then answer the questions that follow:

Five teams participated in Pepsi Cup. Each team played against each other. The top teams played finals. A win fetched 2 pts and a tie 1 point
1) South Africa were in the finals
2) India defeated SA but failed to reach the finals
3) Australia lost only one match in the tournament
4) The match between India and Sri Lanka was a tie
5) The undefeated team in the league matches lost in the finals
6) England was one of the best teams that did not qualify

5.       Who were the finalists? 
(A) SA & India    (B) Aus & SL        (C) SA & SL          (D) None
Ans: (C)
6.       Who won the finals? 
(A) Aus                 (B) SL                     (C) SA                    (D) Can’t be determined
Ans: (D)

7.       How many matches did India Win? 
(A) 0                      (B) 1                       (C) 2                       (D) can’t be determined
Ans: (D)

8.       What was the outcome of the India England Match 
(A) India won     (B) England won               (C) It was a tie   (D) Can’t be determined
Ans: (D)

Question 9 & 10 are based on the situation given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, and G the seven cricket players are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on a dais along one side of a single rectangular table.
A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of table, which is closest to exit.
B will receive Man of the Match and must be in the centre chair
C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of Wicket keeper dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible
E and F are best friends and want to seat together.

9.       Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table? 
(A) C                      (B) D                      (C) G                      (D) F
Ans: (D)

10.   Which of the following pairs may not be seated together? 
(A) E & A              (B) B & D              (C) C & F               (D) G & D
Ans: (A)

Question 11-14 are based on the following information:

An employee has to allocate offices to six staff members. The offices are numbered one to six and are arranged in a row and they are separated from each other by dividers. Hence voices, sounds and cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to another

Miss R needs to use the telephone quite often throughout the day. Mr. M and Mr. B need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often while working. Miss H is a senior employee and his to be allotted the office no. 5, having the biggest window.

Mr D requires silence in office next to his. Mr. T, Mr M and Mr. D are all smokers. Miss H finds tobacco smoke allergic and consecutively the offices next to hers are occupied by non-smokers. Unless specifically stated all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence during office hrs.

11.   The ideal candidate to occupy office farthest from Mr. B will be 
(a) Miss H            (b) Mr. M            (c) Mr. T               (d) Mr. D
Ans: (c)

12.   The three employees who are smokers should be seated in the offices 
(a) 1 2 4                (b) 2 3 6                (c) 1 2 3                 (d) 1 2 6
Ans: (c)

13.   The ideal office for Mr. M would be 
(a) 2                       (b) 6                       (c) 1                       (d) 3
Ans: (d)

14.   In the event of what occurrence within a period of one month since the assignment of the offices would a request for a change in office be put forth by one or more employees? 
(a) Mr D quitting smoking
(b) Mr. T taking over duties formally taken care of by Miss R
(c) The installation of a water cooler in Miss H?s office
(d) Mr. B suffering from anaemia
Ans: (b)

Question 15-17 are based on the following information:

Ten coins are distributed among four people P, Q, R, S such that one of them gets a coin, another gets 2 coins,3rd gets 3 coins, and 4th gets 4 coins. It is known that Q gets more coins than P, and S gets fewer coins than R.

15.   If the no. of coins distributed to Q is twice the no. of coins distributed to P then which one of the following is necessarily true? 
(a) R gets even no. of coins
(b) R gets odd no. of coins
(c) S gets even no. of coins
(d) S gets odd no. of coins
Ans: All the above are possible answers. (There appears to be a mistake in the question)

16.   If R gets at least two more coins than S which one of the following is necessarily true? 
(a) Q gets at least 2 more coins than S
(b) Q gets more coins than P
(c)  P gets more coins than S
(d) P and Q together get at least five coins
Ans: (b)

17.    If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which one of the following is not necessarily true? 
(a) P and Q together get at least 4 coins
(b) Q and S together get at least 4 coins
(c) R and S together get at least 5 coins
(d) P and R together get at least 5 coins
Ans: (a)

Question 18-19 are based on the following information:

Elle is 3 times older than Zaheer. Zaheer is as old as Waheeda. Yogesh is elder than Zaheer.

18.    What is sufficient to estimate Elle’s age? 
(a) Zaheer is 10 yrs old
(b) Yogesh and Waheeda are both older than Zaheer by the same no of yrs.
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

19.   Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the info above? 
(a) Yogesh is elder than Waheeda
(b) Elle is older than Waheeda
(c) Elle’s age may be less than that of Waheeda
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) This is wrong and can be inferred from the above.


Wednesday, 27 May 2015

Bharatia Mahila Bank - English

Bharatia Mahila Bank - English

Questions 1 – 10 – Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow:

Passage:
In a small hill town there lived a thief. He was very smart and before breaking into houses for theft he used to enquire about the life styles of the people staying in that house. Then at the dead of night he used to commit theft.

Dhanpatrai was a money lender living in the same town. He was thrifty and never wasted money. He had a daughter named Laxmi. The thief knew that Dhanpatrai was rich and he had a lot of jewellery with him. Smartly the thief found out the location of the house and designed the theft. One night, getting upto the roof of the house he started rmoving the roof covering made of earthern tiles. The money lender heard the sound and was sure that a thirf was on the roof of the house. Now he had to create some ploy. He hit upon a plan. “Laxmi, Laxmi” he called out to his daughter who was sleeping. “Laxmi, I hope our money box and jewellery are kept in the ceiling,” he asked cleverly.

Generally, in hill area, to keep the house warm in winter, houses have a thatched roofing and below that, a wooden ceiling. Certain things used to be kept in the space between the roofing and the wooden ceiling. So, when the thief heard the question put by Dhanpatrai, he thought that there wa a ceiling below the thatched roof. So he jumped down. But, actually in the house there was no wooden ceining. So the thief fell to the floor of the house which was about fifteen feet below and broke his leg. Immediately the moneylender called all the neighbours and they handed over the thief to the police. He saved his house from being burgled, with his ingenuity.

1.            What was the role of Laxmi in this episode?
                (a) She called the people and scared the thief
                (b) Laxmi sent the people for police
              (c) She asked Dhanpatrai to call the police
                (d) Her name was used to misguide the thief
                (e) She got the idea of fooling the thief
                Ans: (d)

2.            How did the thief enter the house of Dhanpatrai?
                (I)           By removing the tiled top of the house
                (II)          By removing the wooden ceiling
                (III)         By opening the door with a duplicate key.
(a)    Only (I)
(b)   Only (II)
(c)    Only (III)
(d)   Both (I) and (II)
(e)   None of these
Ans: (a)

3.            Where was the jewellery actually kept?
                (a)          Inside the bed on which Laxmi was sleeping
                (b)          On the thatched roof top
                (c)           Below the pillow of Dhanpatrai
                (d)          There is no mention of jewellery’s location
                (e)          None of these
                Ans: (d)

4.            What was the quality of the thief?
                (a)          He was expert in removing roof tops
                (b)          Before theft he used to study the styles of the residents
                (c)           He was accurate in identifying the victim
                (d)          He was liked by the people and the police
                (e)          None of these
                Ans: (b)

5.            Who was Dhanpatrai?
                (a)          The father of the thief
                (b)          The moneylender who used to keep the valuables on the roof
                (c)           A cunning and crafty man
                (d)          The father of Laxmi
                (e)          The thief
                Ans: (d)

6.            Who called the police?
                (a)          The son of Dhanpatrai
                (b)          The daughter of Dhanpatrai
                (c)           Dhanpatrai himself
                (d)          Someone who provoked the thief to act
                (e)          None of these
                Ans: (e)

7.            Which quality of Dhanpatrai potected his house?
                (a)          His thrifty behaviour
                (b)          His deep affection for the daughter
                (c)           The cleverness with which he handled the situation
                (d)          His past decision of not thatching the roof top
                (e)          None of these
                Ans: (d)

8.             Why did the thief choose Dhanpatrai’s house to act?
                (a)          There was hardly any house left in the town for theft
                (b)          Dhanpatrai was living with his daughter
                (c)           The house did not have wooden ceiling
                (d)          He had the information that Dhanpatrai was rich
                (e)          None of these
                Ans: (d)

9.            Which of the following statement is TRUE in the context of the passage?
                (a)          The daughter of Dhanpatrai was too weak to handle the thief
                (b)          The people of the town did not like Dhanpatrai
                (c)           Dhanpatrai played a trick with the thief
                (d)          Dhanpatrai did not have money for wastage
                (e)          Laxmi rushed out and gathered the people
                Ans: (c)

10.          The thief would have escaped unhurt had there been ….
                (a)          A dog in the house
                (b)          A wooden ceiling below the thatched roof
                (c)           very few policemen to catch him
                (d)          no alertness on the part of Dhanpatrai’s son
                (e)          Jewellery kept in the house
                Ans: (b)

Question 11 – 15 Which of the following word/phrase has the same meaning as the word/phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.

11.          THRIFTY
                (a)  Miser             (b) Spendthrift        (c)  Shameful               (d) Prolific           (e) Extravagant
                Ans: (a)

12.          BROKE HIS LEG 
                (a) fell unconscious         (b) was shocked                               (c)  fracture at the back
                (d)  broke the thorn        (e) none of these
                Ans: (e)

13.          AT THE DEAD OF
                (a) On death of                 (b) At deep         (c) in the dawn       (d) early evening      (e) every day
                Ans: (b)

14.          HIT UPON A PLAN
                (a) Got an idea                  (b) Quashed the plan     (c) lacked planning          (d) without plan
                (e) None of these
                Ans: (a)

15.          ENQUIRE ABOUT             
                (a) keep pace with          (b) write              (c) investigate into          (d) keep others informed
                (e) None of these
                Ans: (c)                

Questions 16 – 20: Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b ), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions that follow.
               
(a)    To her surprise, she found the baby quite safe in the cradle
(b)   It had blood all over its mouth
(c)    She then entered the house, expecting to find her baby dead
(d)   Malathi discovered the mongoose seated on the door step
(e)   Thinking that it had killed her son, she struck the mongoose so hard that it laid still.
16.          After rearrangement which will be the last (5th) sentence?
                (a)          (b)          (c)           (d)          (e)
                Ans: (a)

17.          Which sentence should come fourth?
                Ans: (c)

18.          Which sentence comes first in the paragraph?
                Ans: (d)

19.          The third sentence in the paragraph is;
                Ans: (e)

20.          The second sentence in the paragraph is;            
                Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. 21 – 25) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C), (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the entence is correct then mark your answer as (E) ‘No correction required’

21.          Newspapers have great power because their enormous circulation.
                (A)  on account
                (B)  because of
                (C)  as a result
                (D)  owing
                (E)  No correction required
                Ans: (B)

22.          The crowd which has gather to protest against the decision slowly returned to their homes.
                (A)  Which had gathered
                (B)  Which have gather
                (C)  gathering up
                (D)  Which gathers around
                (E)  No correction required
                Ans: (A)  

23.          He will be handling the next project since he has vastly experience in the business.
                (A)  vast experience
                (B)  vastly experienced
                (C)  a vast experiencing
                (D)  the vast experience
                (E)  No correction required
                Ans: (A)

24.          Children nowadays are watching too much television.
                (A) too much of
                (B)  more of
                (C)  very much of
                (D)  much on
                (E)  No correction required
                Ans: (E)

25.          The bridge in connection with the two cities will remain closed for security reasons.
                (A)  connects between
                (B)  in connection to
                (C)  being connected from
                (D)  connecting
                (E)  No correction required

                Ans: (D)

Saturday, 23 May 2015

General Awareness Questions for Bank Exams - 10

General Awareness Questions for Bank Exams - 10

1.       Hajo, the meeting point of Buddhism, Hinduism and Islam, is in the state of:
(a) Bihar               (b) Jharkhand    (c) Uttar Pradesh             (d) Assam
Ans: (d)

2.       Which is the highest mountain peak in India?
(a) K2    (b) Mount Everest           (c) Kanchen Junga           (d) Nanda Devi
Ans: (a)

3.       Who amongst the following introduced the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ whereby in absence of natural heir, the sovereignty of Indian States was to lapse to the British:
(a) Lord Hardinge             (b) Lord William Bentinck              (c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Hastings
Ans: (d)

4.       A bottle filled with water at 30°C when opened at moon:
(a) Water will freeze       (b) Water will decompose
(c) Water will boil             (d) Nothing will happen
Ans: (a)

5.       Which one of the following increases the blood calcium level in the human body?
(a) Calcitonin      (b) Parathormone           (c) Thyroxin        (d) Vasopressin
Ans: (b)

6.       In India proclamation of emergency is made under:
(a) Article 352    (b) Article 356    (c) Article 359     (d) Article 360
           Ans: (d)

7.       Malaria can be detected by testing the blood for the presence of:
(a) Eggs of mosquito in red blood cells
(b) Plasmodium in red blood cells
(c) Ruptured liver cells in blood
(d) Larvae of mosquito in blood
Ans: (b)

8.       How much would a 70 Kg man weigh on the moon?
(a) 14 Kg
(b) 686.46 N (Newton)
(c) 421.67 Kg
(d) 98.4  N (Newton)
Ans: (b)

9.       Smallest & Largest planet of solar system is respectively:
(a) Mercury & Uranus
(b) Neptune & Jupiter
(c) Mars & Saturn
(d) Mercury & Jupiter
Ans: (d)

10.   The MOTTO of the National Defence Academy is:
(a) Sewa Parmo Dharma
(b) Veerta Aur Vivek
(c) Kartavya Sarvopari
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)

11.   Buddhism has been divided into how many sects:
(a) Four                (b) Two                                (c) Nine                (d) Three
            Ans: (d)

1         12.    The term cox is associated with which game:
     (a) Rowing          (b) Billiards          (c) Golf                                 (d) Boxing
     Ans: (a)

13.   The white band in India’s national flag was added by:
(a) Pt. Motilal Nehru
(b) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans: (c) (This answer needs a little more probing though it is accepted as such. The present national flag of the country is a modification of the one designed by Pingali Venkayya for the Indian National Congress.)  

14.   If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of constitution must be amended?
(a) First                 (b) Second          (c) Third               (d) Fifth
Ans: (a)

15.    An order of the Supreme Court or High Court commanding a person or a body to do that which is his duty to do is known as:
(a) Mandamus  (b) Certiorari      (c) Obiter Dictum             (d) Quo Warranto
Ans: (b)




Monday, 18 May 2015

Accenture - Verbal & Reasoning - 7

Accenture – Verbal & Reasoning – 7

Question 1 – 5: Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.

Passage:
The object underlying the rules of natural justice ‘is to prevent miscarriage of justice’ and secure ‘fair play in action’. As pointed out earlier the requirement about recording of reasons for its decision by an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial functions achieves his object by excluding changes of arbitrariness and ensuring degree of fairness in the process of decision making, keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principle of natural justice which govern exercise of power by administrative authorities. The rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. The extent of their application depends upon the particularly statutory frame work where under jurisdiction has been conferred on the administrative authority. With regard to the exercise of particular power by an administrative authority including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial functions, the legislature, while conferring the said power, may feel that it would not be in the larger public interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be recorded and communicated to the aggrieved party and it may dispense with such requirement.

1.       ‘The rules of natural justice are not embodied rules’ means that these rules:
(a)    Are left deliberately vague
(b)   Cannot satisfactorily interpreted
(c)    Are flexible
(d)   Cannot be visualized
Ans: (c)

2.       From the passage it is clear that it is the legislature that:
(a)    Invests the administrative authority with enormous powers
(b)   Embodies rules
(c)    Has the larger interest of public welfare
(d)   Leaves administrative authority enough discretion to interpret rules
Ans:  (b)

3.       According to the passage there is always a gap between:
(a)    Rules of natural justice and their application
(b)   Conception of a rule and its concretisation
(c)    Demand for natural justice and its realisation
(d)   Intention and execution
Ans: (a)

4.       To “dispense with a requirement” means:
(a)    To do without the demand
(b)   To drop the charges
(c)    To cancel all formal procedure
(d)   To alter the provisions of the case
Ans: (c)

5.       According to the passage, natural justice can be brought about by:
(a)    Administrative authority remaining vigilant
(b)   Administrative authority upholding rules of natural justice
(c)    Administrative authority framing rules suitably
(d)   Administrative authority observing the rules of fair play
Ans: (d)

Question 6 – 10: In the following questions choose the word that expresses the meaning of the word in bold letters.

6.       INEBRIATE
                               
(a)    Dreamy        (b) stupefied     (c) unsteady       (d) drunken
Ans: (d)

7.       STERILE

(a)    Barren          (b) arid                 (c) childless         (d) dry
Ans: (a)

8.       ABJECT

(a)    Challenge    (b) miserable     (c) deny                               (d) disobey
Ans: (b)

9.       MOVING

(a)    Taking           (b) toying            (c) shifting           (d) turning
Ans: (c)

10.   IRONIC

(a)    Inflexible     (b) bitter              (c) good natured              (d) disguisedly sarcastic
Ans: (d)

Question 11 – 15: Fill in the blank with the appropriate word to complete a meaningful sentence.

11.   People -------- to work hard if you impose certain conditions on them.

(a)    Decide          (b) try                   (c) hesitate         (d) volunteer
Ans: (c)

12.   The only way to ensure the best output from your vehicle is to provide it a proper
and ------------- maintenance.

(a)    Expensive   (b) costly             (c) timely             (d) everlasting
Ans: (c)

13.   ------------ of crops was due to continuous drought.

(a)    Failure          (b) destruction  (c) depreciation                                (d) ruin
Ans: (a)

14.   The ----------- words of the mother comforted the disappointed child.

(a)    Soothing      (b) soft                                 (c) melodious                    (d) sweet
Ans: (a)

15.   To ------------ yourself from cold, wear warm clothes.     

(a)    Save              (b) protect          (c) prevent         (d) prohibit
Ans: (b)

Question 16 – 20. In the following questions choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word in bold letters.

16.   INDISCREET

(a)    Reliable        (b) honest           (c) prudent         (d) stupid
Ans: (c)

17.   FAMILIAR

(a)    Unpleasant                 (b) dangerous   (c) friendly          (d) strange
Ans: (d)

18.   TANGIBLE

(a)    Ethereal       (b) concrete       (c) actual              (d) solid
Ans: (a)

19.   FRUGAL

(a)    Copious        (b) extravagant                 (c) generous      (d) ostentatious
Ans: (b)

20.   INSIPID

(a)    Tasty             (b) stupid            (c) Discreet         (d) feast

Ans: (a) 

Thursday, 14 May 2015

Accenture - Aptitude - 2

Accenture – Aptitude – 2

1.       A car is filled with four and half gallons of oil for a full round trip. The car however consumes quarter gallon more of oil during its up trip than its down trip. What is the quantum of oil consumed by the car during its down trip?
(a)    2 gallons       (b) 3 gallons        (c) 4 gallons        (d) 5 gallons.
Ans: (a)
Assuming the car consumes equal quantity of oil for the whole trip then each of the up and down trip would have consumed to and a quarter gallons of oil since the total oil consumption is given as four and half gallons.
However, for the up trip the car consumes quarter gallon oil more -> 2.25 + 0.25 = 2.50 gallons.
Since the total oil consumed is only four and half gallons, the oil consumed for the down trip is -> 4.5 – 2.5 = 2.00 gallons.

2.       Two men can complete a work in 24 minutes. One of them can complete the work alone in 40 minutes. How much time the other man will take to complete the work alone?
(a)    35 min           (b) 50 min            (c) 60 min            (d) 24 min
Ans: (c)
Let the two men be A and B. Together they complete the work in 24 minutes.
Let us assume A alone completes the work in 40 minutes.
Now in one minute A and B will do 1/24 work.
In one minute A alone will do 1/40 work. B alone will do 1/x work where ‘x’ is the minutes taken by him to do the work.
Now we have an equation ……….. 1/A + 1/B = 1/24 substituting the values
We have ….. 1/40 + 1/x = 1/24
1/x = 1/24 – 1/40 = 1/60. Hence B will take 60 minutes to complete the work.

3.       In a theatre the parking slot allows the parking of four wheeler and two wheelers in the ratio 1 : 8. One day the total number of wheels in the parking slot was observed as 100. How many four wheelers and two wheelers were parked there?
(a)     4 : 24             (b) 5 : 40               (c) 5 : 20               (d) 10 : 30
Ans: (b)
This is a simple but tricky question. If we go by the number of wheels both (b) and (d) would give the total number as 100. But, the ratio of parking slot is given as 1 : 8. On this count option (b) alone will fit and is the answer.
Similar questions were asked in TCS papers also.

4.       Two oranges, three bananas and four apples cost Rs 15.00. Three oranges, two bananas and one apple cost Rs 10.00. What is the cost of three oranges, three bananas and three apples?
(a)    Rs 10              (b)  Rs 20              (c) Rs 15               (d) Rs 25
Ans: (c)
2O + 3B + 4A = 15
3O + 2B + 1A = 10   (adding both)
5O + 5B + 5A = 25 so, O + B + A = 5 and
3O + 3B + 3A = 5 x 3 = 15.

5.       In 8*8 chess board John discovered 204 squares. In 3.*3 tik tac toe board how many squares he will find?
(a)    15                   (b)  14                   (c)  12                    (d)  10
Ans: (b)
If the number of squares on each side is ‘n’ then the total number of squares in the board is given as follows:
N2 + (n-1)2 + (n-2)2 + (n-3)2 + ………..  Substituting 8 for ‘n’ we get total number of squares as 204.
Similarly substituting 3 for ‘n’ we get the value 14.
You can also use the formula for finding the sum of the first ‘n’ squares
{n x (n+1) x (2n+1)} / 6

6.       For typing a research report of 70 pages the amount payable is Rs 20.00. A types 42 pages and B types 28 pages respectively. How much money should be paid to A?
(a)    Rs 10              (b) Rs 12               (c) Rs 14               (d) Rs 15
Ans: (b)
The ratio of work done by A and B is 42 : 28 -> 3 : 2. Hence the amount also should be shared in this ratio.
Hence A will get ……. 20 x 3/5 -> Rs 12.

7.       A rectangular plate with length 11 inches, breadth 8 inches and thickness 2 inches is melted and drawn into a circular rod of diameter 8 inches. What is the length of the rod?
(a)    3 inches        (b)  7 inches        (c)  3.5 inches     (d)  4.5 inches
Ans: (c)
Volume of the rectangular plate is 11 * 8 * 2 -> 176 cubic inches.
The volume of the steel rod should equal this volume.     
Volume of steel rod is given by πr2l (where ‘r’ is the diameter and ‘l’ the length)
Thus π x (4)2 x l = 176   l = 176 / π x 16 -> 3.5 inches.

8.       A tank gets filled in 6 minutes at the rate of 5 cu.ft/min. The length of the tank is 4 feet and the width half that of the length. What is the depth of the tank?
(a)    3.75ft            (b)  4.8ft               (c) 3.7ft                (d) 4.7ft
Ans: (a)
The tank gets filled in 6 minutes at the rate of 5 cu.ft/mt.
Hence the volume of the tank is 6 x 5 = 30 cubic feet.
The length of the tank is 4 feet and the width (half of length) 2 feet. If the depth is ‘l’
Then the volume of 4 x 2 x l = 8 l.
Thus  8l = 30 cu.ft and l = 30/8 = 3.75 ft   

9.       A man goes on his motor bike to the airport to collect a mail. The plane had arrived earlier and the mail was sent through mail van. The man meets the mail van after half an hour of starting collects his mail and returns home. In the process he saves 20 minutes of time. How early the plane had arrived?
(a)    10 min           (b) 15 min            (c) 20 min            (d) 25 min
Ans: (a)
The man collects the mail from the van and returns home in one hour or sixty minutes. In the process he saved 20 minutes. Thus it is evident he would have taken totally 60 + 20 = 80 minutes to go to the airport and return if the plane had not come early. In other words his travel time to airport will be 40 minutes and return time 40 minutes.
But, he collects the mail after travelling 30 minutes only and the difference of 10 minutes the van had covered.
But, the man had saved 20 minutes of which the van had taken 10 minutes. Hence, the plane had arrived 10 minutes earlier than the scheduled time
(NOTE: This puzzle originally appeared in a different format in Shakuntala Devi’s book of puzzles long ago and gets repeated in various placement papers over the years.)

10.   There is a six digit code number. The first two digits when multiplied by 3 give all ones. The second two digits when multiplied by 6 give all twos.  The remaining two digits when multiplied by 9 give all threes. What is the code number?
(a)    332211          (b) 272727           (c) 373737            (d) 333
Ans: (c)
We can answer this question from the choices.
Rule 1. The first two digits when multiplied by 3 give all ones. Hence, it implies the first of the two digits should be 7. Both (b) and (c) fulfils this condition.
But, only (c) gives all ones and option (b)fails on this score.

Option (c) fulfils the other two conditions also.