Reasoning - New

Reasoning - New

Directions for questions 1 to 4: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Palaash never knew he would be in such trouble. He has to sing in seven different languages. The Assamese song would be a hit if and only if it is preceded by a Telugu song. Konkani song would be a hit only if a Hindi song came before it. English has to be preceded by Hindi and Punjabi is the last song he sings. There is one song between English and Punjabi and of the three only two were hit. Konkani song is a failure. Tamil is the seventh language. If the Assamese song is a hit and his first song was Telugu then:

1.       Which song did he sing after English?

a)      Telugu          b)  Konkani         c)  Tamil                d)  Assamese

Ans: (c)

2.       Which song did he sing after Konkani?

a)      Tamil             b)  Punjabi          c)  Hindi                d)  English

Ans: (c)

3.       If each hit had two points in the Grammy Awards, then how many points dis Palaash get?

a)      4                      b)  6                       c)  8                        d)  Can’t say

Ans: (d)

4.       What were the total numbers of assured hit songs as per the question?

a)      3                      b)  4                       c)  5                        d)  6

Ans: (a)

Directions for questions 5 to 9: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

A six digit (with no digit repeated) number is such that every alternate digit is a prime number. The difference between the digit on the tens place and the digit on the thousands place is the digit on the lakh place. The unit’s digit is the product of the digit on the lakh’s place and the digit on the ten thousand’s place, which is also a prime number. The digit in the ten’s place is greater than the digit in the thousandth place.

5.       The digit in the lakh’s place is:

a)      1                      b)  2                       c)  3                        d)  4

Ans: (b)

6.       The digit in the unit’s place is:

a)      2                      b)  4                       c)  6                        d)  8

Ans: (c)

7.       The difference of the digits in the ten thousandth and the ten’s place is:

a)      3                      b)  4                       c)  6                        d)  7

Ans: (b)

8.       The digit in the hundredth place is:

a)      3                      b)  4                       c)  8                        d)  can’t say

Ans: (d)

9.       The number is divisible by:

a)      2                      b)  3                       c)  4                        d) both (a) and (c)

Ans: (d)

Directions (Questions 10-14): In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

10.   Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.

Conclusions:

1. Some pens are pencils.

2. Some pens are papers.

a) Only conclusion (1) follows             b) Only conclusion (2) follows

c) Both (1) and (2) follow                      d) Either (1) or (2) follows

e) Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Ans: (c)

11.   Statements:  Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.

Conclusions:

1.       Some dogs are cats

2.       Some cats are dogs

a)      Only conclusion (2) follows.                 b)  Both (1) and (2) follow 

c)  Either (1) or (2) follows                            d)  Only conclusion (1) follows

e)  Neither (1) nor (2) follows.

                Ans: (e)

12.   Statements:   All the windows are doors.   No door is a wall.

Conclusions:

1.   Some windows are walls.

2.   No wall is a door.

a)   Either (1) or (2) follows                           b)  Only (2) conclusion follows

c)   Both (1) and (2) follow                            d)  Neither (1) nor (2) follows

e)   Only (1) conclusion follows

Ans: (b)

13.   Statements:   Some actors are singers.  All the singers are dancers

Conclusions:

1.       Some actors are dancers

2.       No singer is an actor

a)      Only conclusion (1) follows                  b)   Only conclusion (2) follows 

c)  Either (1) or (2) follows                            d)   Neither (1) nor (2) follows

e)  Both (1) and (2) follows

Ans: (a)

14.  Statements: All the pencils are pens. All the pens are inks.

Conclusions:

1. All the pencils are inks.

2. Some inks are pencils.

a) Only conclusion (2) follows                        b) Only conclusion (1) follows 

c) Either (1) or (2) follows                               d)  Both (1) and (2) follow

e)  Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Ans: (b)

Directions (Questions 15 – 19) Re-arrange the following sentences in an orderly manner to form a cohesive paragraph.

15.   A. This factor is exclusion – access to these technologies remains excluded by class, race and gender.
B.  In comparing these two things, we must realize that there is one important factor for the limitation the former.
C. The rise of digital technologies has the potential to open new directions in ethnography.
D. Despite the ubiquity of these technologies, their infiltration into popular research methods is still limited compared to the number of online scholarly research portals.

a)      CDBA             b)  BACD              c)  CDAB               d)  BCDA

Ans: (a)

16.    A. Based on these findings such as these, scientists agree that we will soon discover intelligent alien life and make contact with it.
B. But this complacency has all changed.
C. Until recently, we have looked at life in a pretty conservative way.
D. In just the past three or four years, biologists have discovered that life on Earth can exist in the most extreme places, and in the most bizarre forms.
E. For example, microbes have been found down boreholes two kilometres deep.

a)       BAECD          b)  CEDAB            c)  CBDEA             d)  EABDC

Ans: (c)

17.   A. These mediums allowed for a greater number of listeners, they quickly garnered popularity in America as well.
B. They would also play in clubs that were popular at the time.
C. What they were trying to do was play “live music” on the Bucharest radio station.
D. The very first signs of Romanian jazz music appeared about seventy years ago, when some jazz bands appeared, like the ones led by Emil and Mihai Berinde.

a)       DCBA             b)  BCDA               c)  BCAD               d)  ABCD

Ans: (a)

18.   A. The issue of abolishing the monarchy as a whole and declaring itself a republic, free of the Queen, has been suggested several times in Canada’s Parliament.
B. Legislation to abolish this has never passed, as we never cease to recognize key function of the Queen as a symbol of loyalty.
C. Most importantly, though, the Queen symbolizes stability, tradition and a certain romanticism about political affairs within the constitutional monarchy.
D. The concept of loyalty as often been viewed as an important part of ethics, and we should not forget this vital fact.

a)      BCDA             b)  CADB              c)  ABDC               d)  CABD

Ans: (c)

19.   A. The revisionist perspective, however, takes a slightly more defensive viewpoint.
B. Corruption is usually viewed from one of two perspectives; the first is the moralist perspective which believes that it is inherently bad.
C. Either way, we must realize that corruption has the ability to be extremely harmful to the general society.
D. It believes that corruption acts as a lubricant for the flow of money and for a developing country’s governmental structure. 

a)      DCBA             b)  BADC              c)  CABD               d)  CDAB

Ans: (b)

CTS - Verbal - 5

CTS – Verbal - 5

Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage

One of the most dangerous drugs for pregnant women to consume is alcohol, because alcohol is delivered quickly into the blood and passes quickly into the tissues and membranes. The human foetus is particularly vulnerable to its effects. In fact, the negative effects on a foetus are so pronounced that babies born after exposure to alcohol are said to be suffering from foetal alcohol syndrome. As a pregnant woman drinks alcohol, the alcohol is passed into her bloodstream almost simultaneously. Moreover, because the bloodstream of the foetus is inextricably tied to that of the mother, the alcohol passes directly into the bloodstream of the foetus as well. And, what is more, the concentration of alcohol in the foetus is exactly the same as in the mother. For the mother, this concentration is not a problem because her liver can remove one ounce of alcohol from her system per hour. However, the foetus’s liver is not completely developed (how developed it is depends on its stage of development). The rate at which it is able to eliminate the alcohol from the blood of the foetus is much slower. Eventually, the alcohol will be returned to the mother's system by passing across the placenta, but this process is slow. By the time this takes place, major neurological damage may have already occurred. Research has shown that as little as one drink of alcohol can produce significant, irreversible damage to the foetus. Babies, born after exposure to alcohol, generally exhibit facial distortion, inability to concentrate, and difficulty in remembering. Simply speaking, it is imperative that pregnant women avoid alcohol.

1. How much time can it is inferred that it takes alcohol to enter a woman's bloodstream after she takes a drink?
         a) about one hour                  b) a few seconds
         c) several minutes                  d) at least 24 hours
Ans: (b)

2. According to the passage, how does the concentration of alcohol in a foetus compares to that in the mother? 
         a) The concentration is more.                            b) The concentration is less.
         c) The concentration is equivalent.                 d) The concentration cannot be measured.
Ans: (c)

3. It can be inferred that the development of a foetal liver depends on 
         a) how many months pregnant the mother is
         b) how much alcohol the mother has consumed
         c) how large the foetus is
         d) how well the mother has taken care of the foetus
Ans:  (a)

4. According to the passage, how is alcohol finally returned to the mother's system? 
         a) it is carried through the bloodstream
         b) it is transferred across the placenta
         c) it is expelled by the foetus’s liver
         d) it is not completely returned
Ans:  (b)

5. Which one of the following was NOT mentioned as a sign of foetal alcohol syndrome? 

         a) disfigurement of the face              b) concentration difficulties
         c) increased aggression                        d) memory problems
Ans: (c)

Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

The establishment of the third Reich influenced events in American history by starting a chain of events which culminated in war between Germany and the United States. The complete destruction of democracy, the persecution of Jews, the war on religion, the cruelty and barbarism of the Nazis and especially, the plans of Germany and her allies, Italy and Japan, for world conquest caused great indignation in this country and brought on fear of another world war. While speaking out against Hitler's atrocities, the American profile generally favoured isolationist policies, and neutrality. The neutrality acts of 1935 and 1936 prohibited trade with any belligerents or loans to them. In 1937 the president was empowered to declare an arms embargo in wars between nations at his discretion

American opinion began to change somewhat after President Roosevelt's quarantine the aggressor speech at Chicago (1937) in which he severely criticized Hitler's policies. Germany's seizure of Austria and the Munich pact for the partition of Czechoslovakia (1938) also angered the American people. The conquest of Czechoslovakia in March 1939 was another rude awakening to the menace of the third Reich. In August, 1939, came the shock of the Nazi - Soviet pact and in September the attack on Poland and the outbreak of European war. The United States attempts to maintain neutrality in spite of sympathy for the democracies arraigned against the Third Reich. The Neutrality act of 1939 repeated the arms embargo and permitted 'cash' and 'carry' exports of arms to belligerent nations. A strong national defence program had begun. A draft act was passed (1940) to strengthen the military services. A Lend - Lease Act (1940) authorized the president to sell exchange or lend materials to any county deemed necessary by him for the defence of the United States. Help was given to Britain territory in the western Hemisphere. In August 1941, President Roosevelt and Prime Minister Churchill met and issued the Atlantic Charter which proclaimed the kind of a world which should be established after the war. In December 1941, Japan launched the unprovoked attack on the United States at Pearl harbour, immediately thereafter Germany declared war on the United States.

6. USA entered the war against Germany
               a) because Pearl Harbour was attacked
               b) after peaceful efforts had failed
               c) because Germany declared war against it
               d) because Japan was an ally of Germany
               e) after Germany had signed the Nazi - Soviet pact
Ans : (c)

7. The Neutrality Act of 1939 favoured Great Britain because
               a) the British had command of the sea
               b) the law permitted U.S.A. to trade only with the allies.
               c) it antagonized Japan
               d) it led to the Land - Lease Act
               e) it agreed with the British on the principle of the Atlantic Charter
Ans : (a)

8. An event that did not occur in 1939 was the
               a). invasion of Poland                      b) invasion of Czechoslovakia

c) passing of the Neutrality Act                   d) passing of the Lend - Lease act
               e) outbreak of the war in Europe
Ans : (d)

9. One item occurring in 1937 that the author does not mention in the list of actions that alienated the American Public was
               a) The persecution of religious groups     b) Nazi barbarism
               c) The pacts with Italy                                     d) German plans for conquest of the world
               d) The burning of the Reich tag.
Ans : (e)

10. The Lend - Lease Act was designed to
               a) Strengthen USA's national defence
               b) Provide battle shift to the Allies
               c) Help the British
               d) the Atlantic Charter
               e) Avenge Pearl Harbour
Ans : (a)

Directions for Questions 11-15: In each of the following questions, a paragraph or a sentence has been broken up into different parts. The parts have been scrambled and numbered as given below.  Choose the correct order of these parts from the given alternatives.

11.     1) not only for            2) but also for    3) lumbering    4) construction purposes    5) as an occupation      6) on modern lines     7) the manufacture of wood pulp. paper, resins etc.
8) owing to the great demand for timber     9) has developed

a) 3,9,6,5,8,1,4,2,7    b) 3,8,9,5,6,1,7,2,4    c) 3,5,9,6,8,1,4,2,7    d)5,3,9,6,8,1,7,2,4
Ans: (c)

12.   1) keeper of the     2) guardian of    3) as well as    4) The U.N.O is supposed to be the
5) the morally conceived     6) political conscience     7) expressly defined rights and duties of sovereign states.     8) and

a) 4,1,7,3,2,5,8,6        b) 4,2,6,8,1,3,5,7    c) 4,1,6,8,2,5,3,7    d) 4,2,7,3,1,5,8,6
Ans: (c)

13.   1) it is of vital importance    2) if this can be prevented     3) since man depends for his food       4) upon articles    5) that none of this soil should be wasted    6) produced from the earth's layer of fertile soil.

a) 3,1,2,4,6,5         b) 3,1,5,4,6,2        c) 3,4,6,1,2,5          d) 3,5,1,2,6,4
Ans : (c)

14.   1) are free from    2) grow abundantly    3) low plants    4) Tundra regions    5) during short summer    6) like mosses and lichens    7) and     8) ice

a) 3,6,2,5,7,4,1,8    b) 4,1,8,5,7,3,6,2    c) 5,3,6,2,7,4,1,8    d) 5,4,1,8,7,2,3,6
Ans: (b)

15.  1) Along the gutters is lingered,    2) its tired breath a pale of chrysanthemum about the street lamps    3) sliding its warm tongue over silent pavements,       4) The gentle fox curled softly down
5) and rubbed its back against the huddled houses    6) then it curled up and slept on corners 
7) Slowly it rose and fell,    8) and pressing its blurred face against shop- windows
9) It coiled its body around the black railings.

a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9    b) 2,9,6,8,5,7,4,3,1    c) 4,9,5,1,3,8,7,2,6    d) 9,6,8,5,7,1,4,2,3
Ans: (c)

Synonyms & Antonyms

Synonyms & Antonyms (Sourced)

Synonyms

1.       APEX

a)      Depth           b)   Bottom         c)   Drop               d)   None of these

Ans: (d)

2.       SLENDER

a)      Thin               b)   Adequate    c)   Plump            d)   Reasonable

Ans: (a)

3.       CLASH

a)      Peace            b)   Stability         c)   Conflict          d)   Calm

Ans: (c)

4.       HOSTILE

a)      Agreeable   b)   Pleasant       c)   Bitter              d)   Polite

Ans: (c)

5.       SHATTER

a)      Fix                  b)   Mend            c)   Assist              d)   Crush

Ans: (d)

6.       WILL

a)      Desire           b)   Neglect         c)   Pass                                d)   Avoid

Ans: (a)

7.       THRESHOLD

a)      Conclusion  b)   Entry              c)   Refusal          d)   Snub

Ans: (b)

8.       BLOW

a)      Drive             b)   Carry              c)   Propel            d)   All of these

Ans: (d)

9.       CYNOSURE

a)      Achiever      b)   Success         c)   Celebrity       d)   Nobody

Ans: (c)

10.   CLAIM

a)      Deny             b)   Question      c)   Disclaim         d)   Demand

Ans: (d)

Antonyms

1.       CONFRONT

a)      Avoid            b)   Meet             c)   Face                                d)   Tackle

Ans: (a)

2.       INNOVATIVE

a)      Modern       b)   Old                  c)   New                                d)   Novel

Ans: (b)

3.       POSTPONE

a)      Reschedule                     b)   Put off      c)   Carry out       d)   Rearrange

Ans: (c)

4.       SLIMY

a)      Slick               b)   Greasy          c)   Arid                 d)   Slippery

Ans: (c)

5.       DEPART

a)      Appear         b)   Quit                                c)   Head off        d)   Set out

Ans: (a)

6.       SADISTIC

a)      Friendly        b)   Aggressive   c)   Brutal             d)   Cruel

Ans: (a)

7.       ARROGANT

a)      Superior       b)   Haughty        c)   Big headed   d)   Humble

Ans: (d)

8.       INCAPABLE

a)      Competent     b)   Unable      c)   Inept              d)   Powerless

Ans: (a)

9.       ADVISE

a)      Delude         b)   Counsel        c)   Direct             d)   Warn

Ans: (a)

10.   FUN

a)      Amazing       b)   Happy            c)   Good              d)   Woeful

Ans: (d)

GRE - English - Reading Passage - 1

GRE – English Reading Passage – 1 (Sourced)

Passage

Among the several hundred million cells that comprise the wondrously complex human body, and thus to be theoretically detectable in lab tests and in electron photomicrographs, a tiny fraction, no more than a few hundred, belong to a curious subclass whose luminescence has a wavelength distribution so unique that it is long defied explanation. Such systems luminesce strongly in the visible region of the spectrum, but some of them do so even more strongly at both shorter and longer wavelengths: in the ultraviolet region and in the infrared regions.

This odd distribution of luminescence is best explained by the pairing of a giant red blood cell and an intensely small white blood cell that is virtually in contact with its larger companion as the two travels around a common centre. Such objects have become known as Clinging cells. On photographic plates only the giant cell can be discerned, but evidence for the existence of the tiny companions has now been supplied by magnifying instruments capable of detecting ultraviolet luminescence at wavelengths that are absorbed by the body's heat and therefore cannot be detected by typical analytical instruments.

The spectra of Clinging cells indicate that the giant red blood cell is surrounded by very thin lipid filaments. The existence of the lipid filaments marked such objects as being unique several decades before clinical observations finally identified the lipid as the luminescence from the tiny companion white blood cell. Clinging cells also flare up in outbursts indicating the ejection of material in the form of a shell or a ring, reminiscent of the recurrent circulation of hormonal cells. Clinging cells may therefore represent a transitory phase in the evolution of certain types of hormonal systems in which there is a substantial transfer of matter from the larger partner to the smaller.

The exact evolutionary course that turns a typical blood cell system into a clinging one is a matter of conjecture. The comparatively small number of known Clinging cells in our bodies suggests that if all binaries of modest mass normally pass through a clinging phase in their evolution, the phase must be extremely brief, perhaps as short as a millisecond.

1. The author's primary purpose in the passage is to

(A) demonstrate that most hormonal systems were at one time clinging
(B) dismiss current knowledge of Clinging cells as overly speculative
(C) describe Clinging cells as a distinct type of cell system
(D) present evidence that hormonal systems are formed from tiny white blood cells
(E) compare characteristics of giant red blood cells and tiny white blood cells

2. The passage implies that Clinging cell systems differ from other hormonal systems in that the former

(A) Display luminescence patterns different from those of most hormonal systems
(B) contain two cells that revolve around a common centre
(C) possess far greater mass than other hormonal systems
(D) are more common in our bodies than other hormonal systems
(E) are the only hormonal systems that can be detected by electron microscopes

3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about "the luminescence" mentioned in line 22?

(A) It causes certain large red blood cells to appear tiny to observers.
(B) It was incorrectly associated with hormonal cells in our bodies.
(C) It interferes with the clarity of photographs of most hormonal systems.
(D) It corresponds to the visible region of the light spectrum.
(E) It could not be positively identified from photomicrograph observations.

4. According to the passage, the exchange of matter within a Clinging cell system is believed to be a process in which

(A) cell grows in mass at the expense of the other
(B) the mass of each cell remains fairly stable
(C) the mass of both cells declines
(D) both cells absorb matter emitted by other nearby cells
(E) both cells gradually return to an earlier singular state

5. The assumption that the Clinging cell phase in the evolution of some hormonal systems "must be extremely brief” (line) is most likely based on the fact that

(A) hormones are rapidly ejected from clinging systems
(B) few Clinging cells have been detected in our bodies
(C) the cells in a clinging pair are in close proximity to each other
(D) Clinging cells vary considerably in size from one another
(E) the outbursts of Clinging cells resemble those of hormonal cells

Answers and Explanations for the Passage

1. C is the correct answer. This is a main idea question and choice C matches the passage's topic and scope. Choices A, D and E are too narrow and limited, while B distorts the author's tone.

2. A is correct. Although the question asks you to infer, it is actually a description question. Choice A is suggested in the passage's first sentence. Neither B nor C is ever suggested, while D contradicts the passage. E is tricky, but distorts the passage.

3. E is the correct choice to this inference question. It corresponds to information in paragraphs 2 and 3. Choice A is not indicated by the passage, while choice C distorts it. D seems to contrdict the passage. This is a difficult question, as the correct answer does not appear in immediately surrounding lines. In this case, the answer is suggested at the end of the previous paragraph.

4. A is correct. This is a challenging detail question with no line reference. Choice A paraphrases information at the end of paragraph 3. Choices B and C are inconsistent, while D and E are never suggested.

5. B is the correct answer. Although the question includes the word "assumption", it is actually a description question. A , D and E mention irrelevant information, while C discusses an unrelated fact. While all the choices are factually accurate, only B contains the relevant information.

Words and their meanings

Abyss:  hole so deep as to appear bottomless

Acquiesce:  agree, accept without protest

Affable:  polite and friendly, easy to talk to

Ambiguous:  having more than one meaning

Annex:   take possession of

Aqueous:  of or like water

Arduous:  demanding great effort, strenuous

Aroma:  quality or surrounding atmosphere considered typical

Bellicose:  inclined to fighting

Calisthenics:  exercises to develop strong bodies

Captor:  person who takes somebody captive

Concoct:  invent, prepare by mixing together

Dangle:  hand or swing loosely

Deprive:   take away from, prevent from using

Diligent:  hard-working

RBI-Selective Questions-2 (Sourced)

RBI – Selective Questions –2  (Sourced)

1. In which type of account, banks generally don’t pay interest—
(A) Savings Account
(B) Current Account             (Ans)
(C) Fixed Deposit Account
(D) Interest is always payable in all types of account
 

2. A bank standing order would be suitable for paying—
(A) Telephone Bills
(B) Electricity Bills
(C) Grocery bills
(D) Mortgage repayments         (Ans)

3. Payment of a cheque cannot be made at the cash counter of a bank if the cheque is—
(A) Bearer
(B) Crossed                                  (Ans)
(C) Order
(D) All of these

4. Which of the following is not a Commercial Bank?
(A) Reserve Bank of India           (Ans)
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Canara Bank
(D) Oriental Bank of Commerce

5. What is the Bank draft?
(A) Letter from the Bank
(B) Cheque which a bank draws on itself          (Ans)
(C) Instruction to a banker to collect a customer’s debt
(D) Instruction not to honour a stop payment

6. The essential characteristic of whatever serves as money is that it must—
(A) Be issued by the State
(B) Be generally acceptable        (Ans)
(C) Not be wholly fiduciary
(D) Have some intrinsic value

7. One of the following is not an example of Near-Money. Which is it?
(A) Bill of Exchange
(B) Bonds and Debentures
(C) Equity shares of a limited company    (Ans)
(D) Treasury bills of the Government of India

8. ‘Fiat Money’ is that which is—
(A) Accepted by overseas banks only
(B) Accepted temporarily in lieu of gold     (Ans)
(C) Backed by gold or silver
(D) Decreed as money by the government

9. Money is—
(A) Acceptable only when it has intrinsic value
(B) Constant in purchasing power
(C) The most liquid of all assets         (Ans)
(D) All of the above

10. Gresham’s law states that—
(A) Bad money promotes good money in the system
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation          (Ans)
(C) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(D) Good money promotes bad money in the system

11. Value of Money—
(A) Is independent of the price level
(B) Is directly related to the price level
(C) Is inversely related to the price level           (Ans)
(D) None of the above

12. Demand pull inflation can be caused by money factors including—
(A) A fall in consumption expenditure
(B) A sharp increase in unemployment
(C) A steep reduction in direct taxation         (Ans)
(D) An increase in Income Tax

13. The process of deflation tends to favour—
(A) Debtor and Creditors a like
(B) Debtor at the expense of Creditors
(C) Creditors at the expense of Debtors          (Ans)
(D) Profit receivers at the expense of fixed income receivers

14. Which of the following statement is not completely true?
(A) An increase in the supply of money will result in inflation       (Ans)
(B) Cost inflation occurs when prices rise to cover increased factor costs
(C) Inflation occurs when the value of money declines
(D) Inflation will have the effect of redistributing incomes within a country

15. Which of the following people is most likely to benefit from an inflationary situation?
(A) A person who buys units from the Unit Trust
(B) A person who keeps his savings under the floor at home
(C) A person makes a large private loan to a friend
(D) A person who takes out a mortgage with a building society        (Ans)

16. The principal liability of a Joint Stock Bank relates to—
(A) Its investment abroad
(B) Its investment at home
(C) Repayment of its customer’s deposits       (Ans)
(D) Its requirements to make special deposits when requested

17. Which of the following is not a function of the Commercial Banks?
(A) Acting as a lender of last resort                 (Ans)
(B) Lending to the private and public sectors
(C) The provision of a cheque system for setting debts
(D) The provision of safe deposit facilities

18. When the Commercial Bank create credit areas which are in effect and increases—
(A) The national debt
(B) The supply of money         (Ans)
(C) The purchasing power of the rupee
(D) The real wealth of the country

19. A customer does not require a bank account to obtain—
(A) A Loan       (Ans)
(B) A Cheque Card
(C) A Banker’s Draft
(D) An Overdraft

20. Which of the following is not a liability of Commercial Banks—
(A) Security Holdings                 (Ans)
(B) Treasury deposit at banks
(C) Demand deposits and time deposits
(D) Borrowing from Central Bank

TCS-Questions- 14

 TCS – Questions – 14

1.       A and B start from house at 10am. They travel from their house on the MG road at 20kmph and 40 kmph.  There is a Junction T on their path.  A turns left at T junction at 12:00 noon. B reaches T earlier, and turns right.  Both of them continue to travel till 2pm. What is the distance between A and B at 2 pm.
Ans: 160 km.

Distance between House and T junction = 20 x 2 = 40km since A travels at 20 kmph and reaches the junction at 12.00 noon.
B reached T at 11 am and continued walking till 2.00 pm ie another 3 hours in which time he covered further 20 km and thus in four hours he has travelled 160 km.   

A reached the T junction after travelling 2 hours covering a distance of 40 km and travelled another two hours in the opposite direction to that of B and  covered further 40 km. Thus B in total travelled 80km.

Thus the distance between them now is 120 + 40 = 160km. (Note that at the T junction they travel ibn opposite directions) (This question is repeated with change in variables and the directions)

2.       A, E, F, and G ran a race. 
A said "I did not finish 1st /4th
E said "I did not finish 4th"
F said "I finished 1st"
G said "I finished 4th"
If there were no ties and exactly 3 children told the truth, then who finishes 4th?
a) A        b) E        c) F         d) G
Ans: (d)

3.       4 Women & 6 men have to be seated in a row on condition that no two women can sit together. In how many ways these arrangements can be made?

Ans: 6! X 7P4 ways.

The six men can be seated in 6! Ways. There are now seven places available for the women to sit. (One before the first male and another after the last male, and in between there are five places for the women to sit) The women can be seated in these seven places in 7P4 ways.

4.       Find the total number of combinations of 5 letters a,b,a,b,b taking some or all at a time?
Ans: 11 ways.

As these five letters consists of only a and b, the

First letter can be chosen in 2 ways either a or b
2 letters can be chosen in 3 ways:  aa, ab, bb
3 letters can be chosen in 3 ways:  bbb, aab, bba
4 letters can be chosen in 2 ways: . aabb, bbba
5 letters can be chosen in 1 way (all the letters)
Thus, the total ways of combinations are 11

5.       Find the 55th word of SHUVANK in dictionary.

Ans: AHSNKUV
The letters of SHUVANK if arranged in alphabetical order we get:  A H K N S U V
The first letter will be A and the remaining 6 letters can be arranged in 6! Ways. This is far ahead of our requirement of 55^th word.

If we take the first two alphabets A and H, the remaining five letters can be arranged in 5! Ways ie 120 ways. This again is head of our requirement of 55^th word.

If we take the first three alphabets A H K then the remaining four letters can be arranged in

4! Ways ie 24 ways.

The next arrangement can be A H N. Again the remaining four letters can be arranged in 4! Ways ie 24 ways.

Next arrangement of letters will be A H S K and the remaining three letters can be arranged in 3! Ways.

We now have, alphabets starting from A H K can be arranged in 24 ways

Alphabets starting from A H N can be arranged in 24 ways

Alphabets starting from A H S K can be arranged in 6 ways. Totalling 54 ways

Hence the 55^th arrangement of word will be AHSNKUV  

6.       Car A leaves city C at 5pm and is driven at a speed of 40kmph.  2 hours later another car B leaves city C at 60 kmph and is driven in the same direction as car A. After how much time the car B will be 9 km ahead of car A.  

Ans: 4 hours 27 minutes (267 minutes)

Car A would have covered 80 kms in the two hour time. If car B were to lead car A by 9 km then it should cover totally 89km while both the vehicles continue running. The relative speed of the two vehicles comes into play.
Relative speed = 60 - 40 = 20 kmph

Hence to bridge the gap of 89 kms distance Car B will be taking 89/20 ie 4 9/20hours

Thus, the answer is 4 hours 27 minutes.

7.       n is a natural number and n^3 has 16 factors.  Then how many factors can n^4 have?
Ans: either 21 or 25

We know the total factors of a number N: (a^p)(b^q)(c^r) is equal to (p+1)(q+1)(r+1)

Since n^3 has 16 factors n^3 could be in either of the following formats namely

A^15 or a^3.b^3  In either case the number of factors are 16.

Hence the number of factors  

If n3 =a15 then n = a5 and number of factors of n4 = 21
n3 = a3.b3 then n = ab and number of factors n4 = 25

8.       W, X, Y, Z are integers.  The expression X - Y - Z is even and the expression Y - Z - W is odd.  If X is even what must be true?
a) W must be odd                            b) Y - Z must be odd
c) Z must be even                            d) Z must be odd
Ans: (a)

Since X is even, both Y, Z are either even or odd.
Y - Z in both cases is however even.  So (Y - Z ) - W = odd is possible only when W is odd

9.       1(1!)+2(2!)+3(3!)....2012(2012!) = ?

Ans: 2013!-1
1(1!)=1  ⇒ 2!-1
1(1!)+2(2!)=1+4=5 ⇒ 3!-1
1(1!)+2(2!)+3(3!)=1+4+18=23 ⇒ 4!-1
On the above rationale
1(1!)+2(2!)+3(3!)+........+2012(2012!)=2013!-1

10.   In a G6 summit held at London, a French, a German, an Italian, a British, a Spanish,and a Polish diplomats represented  their respective countries. 
(i) Polish sits immediately next to British
(ii) German sits immediately next to Italian, British or both
(iii) French does not sit immediately next to Italian
(iv) If Spanish sits immediately next to Polish, Spanish does not sit immediately next to Italian
Which of the following does not violate the stated conditions?
a) FPBISG            b) FGIPBS            c) FGISPB             d) FSPBGI            e) FBGSIP
Ans: (b)