TCS - Recent Questions - 2

TCS – Recent Questions - 2

1.        A student's average (arithmetic mean) test score on 4 tests is 78. What must be the students score on a 5th test for the student’s average score on the 5th test to be 80?

Ans: 88

Average of four tests -> 78.  Total of 4 tests -> 78 x 4 -> 312.

Average of five tests ->  80.  Total of 5 tests->  80 x 5 -> 400

Hence, the student should score 400 – 312 = 88 marks in the fifth test.

2.            Rural households have more purchasing power than the urban households at the same income level, since some of the income urban and suburban households use for food and shelter can be used by the rural households for other needs. Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made above?

(A) The average rural household includes more people than does the average urban or suburban household.

(B) Rural households have lower food and housing costs than do either urban or suburban households.

(C) Suburban households generally have more purchasing power than do either rural or urban households.

(D) The median income of urban and suburban households is generally higher than that of rural households.

(E) All three types of households spend more of their income on housing than on all other purchases combined.

                Ans: (B)

3.       Jose is a student of horticulture in the University of Hose. In a horticultural experiment in his final year, 200 seeds were planted in plot I and 300 were planted in plot II. If 57% of the seeds in plot I germinated and 42% of the seeds in plot II germinated, what percent of the total number of planted seeds germinated?

Ans: 48%

Plot 1 --- 57% out of 200 seeds germinated -> 114 seeds germinated.

Plot 2 --- 42% out of 300 seeds germinated -> 126 seeds germinated.

Thus totally 114 + 126 -> 240 seeds out of total 500 seeds germinated.

Hence the percentage is 240 * 100/500 -> 48%

4.       A closed cylindrical tank contains 36 pie cubic feet of water and it is filled to half its capacity. When the tank is placed upright on its circular base on level ground, the height of water in the tank is 4 feet. When the tank is placed on its side on level ground, what is the height, in feet, of the surface of the water above the ground?

Ans: 3 feet.

It should be noted that since the cylindrical tank is half filled to its capacity, when placed on its side also it will be filled to half its capacity.

Volume of the water in the cylinder in upright position is (pir²h). This is equal to 36pi.

Thus we have an equation pir²h = 36pi.

We are given ‘h’ is equal to 4. Applying this value we will have r² = 9 and r = 3. ie half the base.

When the cylinder is placed on its side the water level will be only upto this height.

Hence the answer is 3 feet.

5.       The present ratio of students to teachers at a certain school is 30 to 1. If the student enrollments were to increase by 50 students and the numbers of teachers were to increase by 5, the ratio of the teachers would then be 25 to 1.What is the present number of teachers?

Ans: 15

Let ‘s’ be the initial number of students and ‘t’ the initial number of teachers.

Then we have the ratio s/t = 30/1. ->  s = 30t.

After 50 students and 5 teachers join the new ratio becomes –>  s+50/t+5 = 25/1

Substituting the value of  ‘s’ as 30t

We have a new equation->  30t + 50 = 25t + 125. Solving, we get the value of ‘t’ as 15.

Hence, the numbers of teachers initially were 15.

6.       College T has 1000 students. Of the 200 students majoring in one or more of the sciences, 130 are majoring in Chemistry and 150 are majoring in Biology. If at least 30 of the students are not majoring in either Chemistry or Biology, then the number of students majoring in both Chemistry and Biology could be any number from…..

Ans: between 110 and 130

Total students majoring in Sciences = 200

Students majoring in Chemistry        = 130

Students majoring in Biology             = 150

               Students majoring in both  ->  130 + 150 – 200 -> 80

                Students not majoring in Chemistry or biology = 30

                Thus students majoring in both Chemistry and Biology -> 80 + 30 = 110.

                Since the number of students majoring in Chemistry is only 130

                We could assume the range as between 110 and 130 for students majoring in both.

7.       Kelly and Chris are moving into a new city. Both of them love books and thus packed several boxes with books. If Chris packed 60% of the total number of boxes, what was the ratio of the number of boxes Kelly packed to the number of boxes Chris packed?

Ans: 2 : 3

An easy question to answer. If Chis had packed 60% of the boxes then Kelly would have packed the remaining 40% of boxes. Thus the ratio of boxes packed by Kelly and Chris is 40% : 60% or 2 : 3.

8.       A drug that is highly effective in treating many types of infection can, at present, be obtained only from the bark of the ibora, a tree that is quite rare in the wild. It takes the bark of 5,000 trees to make one kilogram of the drug. It follows, therefore, that continued production of the drug must inevitably lead to the ibora's extinction. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

(A)   The drug made from ibora bark is dispensed to doctors from a central authority.

(B)   The drug made from ibora bark is expensive to produce.

(C)   The leaves of the ibora are used in a number of medical products.

(D)   The ibora can be propagated from cuttings and grown under cultivation.

(E)    The ibora generally grows in largely inaccessible places.

Ans: (D)

9.       Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every 40 second, and Machine B produces bolts at a uniform rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If the two machines run simultaneously, how many seconds will it take for them to produce a total of 200 bolts?

Ans: 25 seconds

Machine A in 40 seconds produce 120 bolts. Ie in one second it produces 3 bolts.

Machine B in 20 seconds produce 100 bolts. Ie in one second it produces 5 bolts.

Thus in one second both A & B would produce 3 + 5 = 8 bolts.

Hence to produce 200 bolts both A & B would take 200/8 = 25 seconds.

10.   Wood smoke contains dangerous toxins that cause changes in human cells. Because wood smoke presents such a high health risk, legislation is needed to regulate the use of open-air fires and wood burning stoves.

Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the argument above?
(A) The amount of dangerous toxins contained in wood smoke is much less than the amount contained in an equal volume of automobile exhaust.
(B) Within the jurisdiction covered by the proposed legislation, most heating and cooking is done with oil or natural gas.
(C) Smoke produced by coal-burning stoves is significantly more toxic than smoke from wood-burning stoves.
(D) No significant beneficial effect on air quality would result if open-air fires were banned within the jurisdiction covered by the proposed legislation.
(E) In valleys where wood is used as the primary heating fuel, the concentration of smoke results in poor air quality.

Ans: (E)

  

Infosys Reasoning (Recent) - 2

Infosys Reasoning (Recent) - 2

Directions 1-5: In each question below are given three Statements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given Statements disregarding commonly known facts.

1.       Statements:
Some cycles are busses.  All cars are buses.  Some buses are trains.

Conclusions:
I. All cars are cycles.
II. Some trains are buses.
III. Some trains are cars.

(1) None follows             

(2) Only I and II follow   

(3) Only land III follow   

(4) Only II and III follow                               

(5) None of these
Ans:  (4)

2.       Statements:

All pencils are sticks.  Some sticks are notes.  All diaries are notes.

Conclusions:
I. Some notes are diaries.
II. Some sticks are pencils.
III. Some diaries are sticks.

(1) All follow
(2) Only I follow
(3) Only I and II follow
(4) Only II follows
(5) None of these
Ans:  (5)

3.       Statements:

Some buds are leaves.  No leaf is fruit.  Some fruits are buds.

Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are leaves.
II. All buds are fruits.
III. Some leaves are buds.

(1) Only I or II follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) None follows
(5) None of these
 Ans:  (2)

4.       Statements:

Some birds are animals.  All animals are rivers.  Some rivers are lions.

Conclusions:
I. Some lions are animals
II. Some rivers are birds
III. No animal is lion

(1) Only II follows
(2) Only either I or III follows
(3)  I and II follows
(4)  Only either II or III follow
(5) None of these
Ans:  (3)

5.       Statements:

All boxes are pans.  Some boxes are jugs.  Some jugs are glasses.

Conclusions:
I. Some glasses are boxes
II. No glass is box
III. Some jugs are pans                                                                                                     
IV. No jug is pan

(1) Only I and II follows

(2) Either I or II and III follows

(3)  Only III follows

(4)  Either I or II , and  either  III or IV  follow

(5) None of these
 Ans:  (3)

Directions 6-10 Use the following answer choices for the questions below.
A.   Statement 1 alone is sufficient but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
B.   Statement 2 alone is sufficient but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
C.    Both statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement is sufficient alone.
D.    Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
E.     Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data is needed to answer the statements.

6.        If the average size of 3 accounts is $1 million, is the smallest account less than $500,000?

1.      The largest account is $1.3 million.
2.      One of the accounts is $0.7 million.
Ans:  (C)

7.       Is the product of x and y greater than 60?

1.      The sum of x and y is greater than 60.
2.      Each of the variables is greater than 2.
Ans:  (A)

8.       What is the value of y?

1.      y - 3 = 2
2.      y2 = 25
Ans: A

9.       What was the percent increase of Company A's stock between June 1 and June 30, 2000?

1.      The stock gained $5 in value during June 2000.
2.      The stock rose 12% during the first half of the month.
Ans:  (E)

10.   Which company reported the larger dollar increase in earnings?

1.      Company A reported that its earnings increased by 5%.
2.      Company B reported that its earnings increased by 7%.
Ans:  (E)

11.    Ramesh starting from a fixed point goes 15 km towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?

(A) 5 metres
(B) 10 metres
(C) 20 metres
(D) 15 metres
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans: (B)

12.   Sonalika goes 12 km towards North from a fixed point and then she goes 8 km towards South from there. In the end she goes 3 km towards east. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?

(A) 7 km East
(B) 5 km West

(C) 7 km West
(D) 5 km North-East
(E)  None of these
Ans: (D)

13.   Sunita goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes 15 km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?

(A) 45 km, East
(B) 15 km, East
(C) 45 km, West
(D) 45 Km, North
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)

14.   Kanchan goes 5 m towards east from a fixed point N and then 35 km after turning to her left. Again she goes 10 metres after turning to her right. After this she goes 35 m after turning to her right. How far is she from N?

(A) 40 m
(B) At N

(C) 10 m
(D) 15 m
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)

15.   Shri Prakash walked 40 metres facing towards North. From there he walked 50 metres after turning to his left.  After this he walked 40 metres after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from his starting point?

(A) 40 m, North
(B) 50 m, West
(C) 10 m, East
(D) 10 m, West
(E) None of these
Ans: (B) 

Numerical Ability Questions - Bank Exams

Numerical Ability Questions – Bank Exams

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25                       2. 26                       3. 27                       4. 30                       5. 26
Ans: (3) 

Let the three consecutive numbers divisible by 3 be { x + (x+3) + (x+6)}

It is given x + (x+3) + (x+6) = 72. Thus the value of x is 21 and the highest of the three is x+6 -> 27

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8                     2. 4/9                     3. 2/8                     4. 3/8                     5. 5/8
Ans: (4)           Easy. Can be answered from the choices

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36                       2. 37                       3. 42                       4. 29                       5. 47
Ans: (2) 

Let us assume (640 – 11) is divisible by ‘x’. Then ‘x’ also divides 710-7 and 1526-9

Thus we have ‘x’ that can divide 629, 703 and 1517. The HCF of these three numbers -> 37 is the answer.

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29                       2. 30                       3. 24                       4. 25                       5. 28
Ans: (3)

Let J be Jayesh’s age and his difference from Anil and Prashant be ‘x’. Then we have Anil’s age as

J+x and Prashant’s age J-x.

We are given the sum of Anil’s and Prashant’s age as 48.

This gives us an equation (J+x) + (J-x) 48. Solving we get the value of J as 24 ie Jayesh’s age.

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28                2. Rs. 36                3. Rs. 49                4. Rs. 72                5. Rs. 50
Ans: (2)

Let ‘x’ be the rupee coin. Then 50 paise will be x/2 and 25 paise x/4.

The coins are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5    thus we have 2x + 3x/2 + 5x/4 = 114. Solving we get

The value of ‘x’as 24. Hence the number of 50 paise coins are 3x/2 -> 36 Rupees.

6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4/5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:
1. Rs. 78,000       2. Rs. 78,500       3. Rs. 80,000       4. Rs. 85,000       5. Rs. 87,500
Ans: (5)

At 1.3% the premium amount works out to Rs 910. Hence the insured value of the tempo is

910 / 1.3 -> 700 * 100 -> 70000. This insured value is 4/5 of the original value. Hence the

Original value is 70000 x 5/4 -> Rs 87,500.

7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1. 19                       2. 18                       3. 24                       4. 22                       5. 23
Ans: (2)

At Rs 40/- the man loses 20%. Hence the cost price is 40 x 100/80 = Rs 50/-. Thus 45 lemons cost price is Rs 50/-. Cost of one lemon is 50/45 -> Rs 10/9.

Selling at Rs 24 gives a profit of 20%. Hence the cost price is 24* 100/120 = Rs 20/-

Since the cost of one lemon is Rs 10/9  the number of lemons to be sold for Rs 20/- will be

20 / 10/9 -> 20 x 9/10 -> 18 lemons.

8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:
1. 10                       2. 16                       3. 20                       4. 22                       5. 18
Ans: (2)

9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1. Rs. 320             2. Rs. 345             3. Rs. 355             4. Rs. 380             5. None of these
Ans: (2)

A+B are to do 19/23 work. Hence C will do 1 – 19/23 -> 4/23 work.

B+C are to do 8/23 work. Hence B will be doing 8/23 – 4/23 -> 4/23 work.

So, A will be doing 19/23 – 4/23 -> 15/23 work. Thus the ratio of work done by

A : B : C  ::  15 : 4 : 4. Total amount agreed for the work is Rs 529.

Thus A’s share of the money will be 529 x 15/23 -> Rs 345.

10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately how much?
1. 10.4 km/hr     2. 10.8 km/hr     3. 12 km/hr         4. 14 km/hr         5. 13 km/hr
Ans: (2)

Time taken to travel a distance of 10 km at a speed of 12 kmph is 10/12-> 5/6 hour -> 50 minutes.

Time taken to travel a distance of 12 km at a speed of 10 kmph is 12/10-> 6/5 hours -> 1 hour 12 minutes.

Thus to total time taken to travel a distance of 22 km is 2 hours and 2 minutes -> 122 minutes.

Hence the average speed for the entire journey will be 22/122 * 60 _> 10.8 kmph.

11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?
1. 1/19                  2. 27/29                3. 35/256              4. 1/221                5. 35/121
Ans: (4)

There are four cards that are King. Thus the answer is arrived at 4C2/52C2

12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1. 13%                   2. 10.25%             3. 15%                   4. 11%                   5. None of these
Ans: (2)

Apply the formula P (1+R/100)ⁿ – P. Assume P as 100, ‘n’ as two since the interest is compounded twice in a year and R half of 10% ie 5%.

  

13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1. 11%                   2. 12%                   3. 20%                   4. 28%                   5. 33%
Ans: (4)

Assume the original measurement of the Towel as Length 100 and Breadth 50. Area is 500 Sq. units

After bleaching length shrunk by 20% and breadth by 10%. So, the new length and breadth are

80 and 45. The new area is 80 * 45 = 360 sq. units. Thus the reduction in area is 500 – 360 = 140 sq. units.

The percentage of reduction in area is 140 x 100/500 -> 28%

Accenture - Verbal & Reasoning - 2

Accenture – Verbal & Reasoning - 2                                                       

Directions (1-5): Read the following passage and answer the questions below.

Despite the loss of colonies, the industrialized countries of the west were still in an excellent position to influence events in the third world, and to do so in ways which partially offset the effects of decolonization. However virulently third leaders might attack imperialism, they still needed the markets and investments which the former colonial powers provided. Hence, most third world countries remained within the global capitalist system, regardless of their political status. Although a few social revolutionary changes came in many countries, the system was superseded by neo – colonialism. Whereas the former involved direct rule by an imperial power, the latter referred to situations in which underdeveloped nations achieved political independence but remained economically dependent on the west.

Nonetheless, social revolutionaries and also some nationalists attacked western property as well as western political authority, and therefore posed a greater challenge than the ideal neo – colonial solutions. If the newly independent nations of the third world refrained from expropriating western investment and profits, and continued to allow access to their markets, resources and cheap labour, then the west might live with decolonization. But third world revolutionaries and various nationalists proposed to take control of foreign capital while the former hoped to move towards some type of socialism. In addition, revolutionaries usually identified with soviet bloc, though the People’s Republic of China assumed a more independent stance. The effect was to threaten western strategic as well as economic interests. Moreover, the specter of revolution had a particular impact on Washington and colored America’s perception of the third world generally. It was a most important factor shaping US policy. Hence, the efforts of Washington to develop counter – revolutionary strategies, either to anticipate and guide change into safe channels or to destabilize leftist or other unfriendly regimes which had succeeded in coming to power. The problem was that the very success of such efforts perpetuated the conditions which had led to social revolution in the first place and guaranteed that the history of the third world would be one of ongoing conflict.

1. Western countries are able to influence the third world countries because

(a)  the third world countries offered no resistance

(b)  the third world attacked the policies of western countries.

(c)  the markets and investments of the western countries always attracted the third world.

(d)  none of these

Ans: (c)

2. In most countries the old colonialism was replaced by

(a) Marxist governments             

(b) Socialism

(c) Imperialism

(d) Neo – colonialism

Ans: (d)

3. The revolutionaries in the third world,

(a) endorsed the western supremacy,

(b) remained neutral

(c) Posed a challenge to the western domination,

(d) followed the Chinese example

Ans: (c)

4. Washington is interested in

(a) Encouraging leftist regimes,

(b) promoting terrorism

(c) Destabilizing leftist or unfriendly regimes,

(d) none of these

Ans: (c)

5. It is hinted that

(a) The history of third world would be peaceful

(b) The history of third world would be decided by leftist revolutions

(c) China is not interested in the history of the third world.

(d) The history of the third world would be conflict – ridden for a long time.

Ans: (d)

Choose the correct / most appropriate word/s to fill in the gap in the sentences given below.

6) As a leader _____ the B2B market, all employees take part in leading-edge 

    Technology.

a) to                       b) with                  c) in                        d) between

Ans: (c)

7) In addition to the simple test there ______  Shorthand assignments.

a) is                        b) are                    c) were                 d) must

Ans: (b)

8)  I didn’t set _________ to do this but I’m pleased with the result.

a) in                       b) out                    c) on                      d) down

Ans: (b)

9) This looks too heavy,______________ pick it up?

a) Can I                 b) may I               c) need I              d) would I

Ans: (d)

10) I am glad so many people have passed the test. In fact, there were_________ who

      haven’t.

a) little                  b) a little              c) few                   d) a few

Ans: (c)

11) Pope John Paul II ___________ more than 90 countries.

a) has visited      b) was visited    c) visits                 d) has been visiting

Ans: (a)

12) Have you given up______________.

a) To smoke       b) Smoke             c) Some smoking              d) Smoking

Ans: (d)

13) There were many dogs in the park. One dog was ___ Dalmatian.

a) an                      b) a                        c) the                    d) none of the above

Ans: (b)

14) Pandas and ___ tigers are both endangered animals.

a) a                         b) an                      c) the                    d) nothing

Ans: (c)

15) He broke ___ glass when he was washing dishes.

a) a                         b) the                    c) nothing            d) an

Ans: (a)

Reasoning for Bank Exams - 1

Reasoning for Bank Exams - 1

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:

The convenience of online shopping is what I like best about it. Where else can you shop even at midnight wearing your night suit? You do not have to wait in a line or wait till the shop assistant is ready to help you with your purchases. It is a much better experience as compared to going to a retail store. — A consumer’s view.

1. Which of the following can be a strong argument in favour of retail store owners?

(1) Online shopping portals offer a great deal of discounts which retail stores offer only during the sale season
(2) One can compare a variety of products online which cannot be done at retail stores
(3) Many online shopping portals offer the ‘cash on delivery’ feature which is for those who are sceptical about online payments
(4) Many consumers prefer shopping at retail stores which are nearer to their houses
(5) In online shopping the customer may be deceived as he cannot touch the product he is paying for.

Ans: (5)

2.  Many manufacturing companies are now shifting base to the rural areas of the country as there is a scarcity of space in urban areas. Analysts say that this shift will not have a huge impact on the prices of the products manufactured by these companies as only about 30% consumers live in urban areas. Which of the following maybe a consequence of the given information?

(1)The prices of such products will decrease drastically in the urban areas
(2) People living in urban areas will not be allowed to work in such manufacturing companies
(3) These manufacturing companies had set-ups in the urban areas before shifting base
(4) Those who had already migrated to the urban areas will not shift back to rural areas
(5) The number of people migrating from rural to urban areas in search of jobs may reduce

Ans: (5)

3.  ‘Pets are not allowed in the park premises’ – A notice put up at the park entrance by the authority that is responsible for maintenance of the park.

Which of the following can be an assumption according to the given information? (An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted)

(1)At least some people who visit the park have pets.
(2) This is the only park which does not allows pets
(3) People who ignored this notice were fined
(4) There are more than one entrances to the park
(5) Many people have now stopped visiting the park

Ans: (1)

4. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An= inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)

(1)One can shop online only at night
(2) Those who are not comfortable using computers can never enjoy the experience of online shopping.
(3) All retail stores provide shopping assistants to each and every customer
(4) The consumer whose view is presented has shopped at retail stores as well as online
(5) The customer whose view is presented does not have any retail stores in her vicinity.

Ans: (4)

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Despite repeated announcements that mobile phones were not allowed in the examination hall, three students were caught with their mobile phones.

(A) Mobile phones nowadays have a lot of features and it is easy to cheat with their help.
(B) The invigilator must immediately confiscate the mobile phones and ask the students to leave the exam hall immediately.
(C) Mobile phones are very expensive and leaving them in bags outside the exam hall is not safe.
(D) There have been incidents where students who left the exam hall early stole the mobile phones kept in the bags of the students who were writing the exam.
(E) The school authorities must ask the students to leave their phones in the custody of the invigilator before the exam in order to avoid thefts of mobile phones
(F) None of the other students were carrying their phones in the exam hall.

5. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be a strong argument in favour of, the three students who were caught with the mobile phone?

(1) Only (A)

(2) Both (A) and (B)
(3) Both (C) and (D)

(4) Only (C)
(5) Both (B) and (D)

Ans: (3)

6. Which of the following among (A), (B), (E) and (F) may be the reason behind the school making such announcements before the exam?

(1) Only (B)

(2) Both (B) and (E)
(3) Only (F)

(4) Only (A)
(5) Both (E) and (A)

Ans: (4)

7. Which of the following among (A), (B), (D) and (F) can be an immediate course of action for the invigilator?

(1) Only (B)

(2) Both (A) and (D)
(3) Only (A)

(4) Both (D) and (F)
(5) Only (F)

Ans: (1)

Directions: In each of the questions below, two/three/ statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follow
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow

8-9. Statements (Common):

Some squares are circles.
No circle is a triangle.
No line is a square.

8. Conclusions:

I. All squares can never be triangles.
II. Some lines are circles.

Ans: (1)

9. Conclusions:

I. No triangle is a square.
II. No line is a circle.

Ans: (4)

10-11. Statements (Common):

All songs are poems.
All poems are rhymes.

No rhyme is a paragraph.

10. Conclusions:

I. No song is a paragraph.
II. No poem is a paragraph.

Ans: (5)

11. Conclusions:

I. All rhymes are poems.
II. All songs are rhymes.

Ans: (2)

12. Statements:

Some dews are drops.
All drops are stones.

Conclusions:

1.Atleast some dews are stones.
II. Atleast some stones are drops.

Ans: (5)

Infosys Reasoning (Recent) - 1

Infosys Reasoning (Recent) - 1

1.       There is a number that is little less than 500, which when divided by 3,4,5,7 leaves no remainder. Find the number.  (3 marks)
Ans: 420
The answer is the LCM of 3,4,5,7 that is 420.

Similar questions have come in other papers, where it is said there will be a remainder of 1. In that case the answer would be 420 + 1 = 421.  

2.       One day Harry and I set our watches together. We were not aware that my watch was going faster by 2 min per hour and Harry’s watch was going slower by 1 min per hour. After sometime, we discovered that my watch was one hour ahead of Harry’s watch.  After how much time we noticed this?  (3 marks)                     
Ans: 20 hours.

For every hour the difference between the two watches was 2 + 1 = 3 minutes.

The difference in time between the two watches was one hour and Harry’s watch was ahead of mine.

Thus the number of hours elapsed is 60minutes / 3 minutes -> 20 hours.  

3.       There is well of depth 30m and a frog is at the bottom of the well. The frog jumps 3m in one day and falls back by 2m in the same day. How many days it would take the frog to come out of the well?

Ans: The frog would come out on the 28^th day.

Every day the frog climbs up net 1m. On the 27^th day it will be 3m below the top of the well and on the 28^th day when it jumps 3m it would come out of the well.

4.       If 5/2 artists make 5/2 paintings using 5/2 canvases in 5/2 days then how many artists 
are required to make 25 paintings using 25 canvases in 25 days? 

Ans: 25. (The only inverse variable is artists and days and the other two are direct variables)

5.       If I walk with 30 miles/hour I reach 1 hour before and if I walk with 20 miles/hour I reach 1 
hour late. Find the distance between 2 points and if the exact time of reaching destination 
is 11 am then find the speed at which I walk. 
Ans: 120miles and 24 miles/hour

Let D be the distance. Then we have one straight equation -> D/20 – D/30 = 2 hours.

Solving this we get the value of D as 120 miles.

Now walking at 20 miles/hour I am late by one hour. This speed would take me six hours to cover the distance and I am late by one hour. In other words I should cove the distance in 5 hours. Then my speed will have to be 120 / 5 = 24 miles/hour. This applies when I walk at 30 miles/hour in which case I am earlier by one hour. 

6.       The product of 5 different temperatures is 12. If all of them are integers then find all the 
temperatures.
Ans:  -2, -1, 1, 2, 3 

7.       There are 9 cities numbered 1 to 9. From how many cities the flight can start so as to 
reach the city 8 either directly or indirectly such the path formed is divisible by 3. 
Ans: Three cities 1, 3 and 6.

City 1 – The path will be 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,

City 3 -  The path will be 2, 1, 9

City 6 -  The path will be 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 9

8.       Sometime after 10:00 PM a murder took place. A witness claimed that the clock 
must have stopped at the time of the shooting. It was later found that the position of 
both the hands were the same but their positions had interchanged. Tell the time of the 
shooting (both actual and claimed). 
Ans: Time of shooting -> 11:54 PM  Claimed Time -> 10:59 PM. 

9.       What is the next number in the series is 1 , 2 , 4 , 13 , 31 , 112 , ? 
Ans: 224. 
No number has digits more than 4. All of them are 1 , 2, 4, 8 , 16 , 32 , 64 converted to 
numbers in base 5.

10.   Shahrukh speaks truth only in the morning and lies in the afternoon, whereas 
Salman speaks truth only in the afternoon. A says that B is Shahrukh. Is it morning or 
afternoon and who is A - Shahrukh or Salman? 
Ans: Afternoon.  A is Salman.

Since A says that B is Shahruk, A can only be Salman and he speaks truth only in the afternoon.

            If A is Shahrukh then his saying B is Shahrukh is a lie. He lies in the afternoon.

11.   There are 6 volumes of books on a rack kept in order ( ie vol.1, vol. 2 and so on ). 
Give the position of the books after the following changes have been made. 
Vol. 5 was directly placed to the right of Vol. 2.  Vol. 4 has Vol. 6 to its left and both 
were not at Vol. 3's place. Vol. 1 has Vol. 3 on right and Vol. 5 on left. An even numbered 
volume is at Vol. 5's place Find the order in which the books are kept now. 
Ans: 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 4. 

12.   I bought a car with a peculiar 5 digit numbered licence plate which on reversing 
could still be read. On reversing value is increased by 78633.Whats the original number 
if all digits were different? 
Ans: 10968

Only 0 1 6 8 and 9 can be read upside down. So on rearranging these digits, we get 
the answer as 10968. 

13.   Two trains starting at same time, one from Bangalore to Mysore and other in 
opposite direction arrive at their destination 1 hour and 4 hours respectively after passing 
each other. How much faster is one train from other? 
Ans: Twice. 
Let ‘x’ be the distance between Bangalore & Mysore and let ’a’ be the distance from Bangalore to the meeting point.

Train 1 from BNG to MYS speed be S1.  Train 2 from MYS to BNG speed be S2.

Then we have -> a/S1 = x-a/S2 -> S1/S2 = a/x-a.

Train 1 takes 1 hour to travel (x-a) distance and Train 2 takes 4 hours to travel the distance ‘a’. So we have (x-a)/S1 = 1 hour and a/S2 = 4 hours. Substituting these values

We have S1/S2 = 4S2/S1 -> S1^2 = 4S2^2 Thus S1 : S2 = 1 : 2.

English Verbal - 10 (for Bank Exams)

English Verbal – 10 (for Bank Exams)

Question Nos (1 – 5) Identify the sentence that is grammatically correct in all respects

1.  (a)  I am not one of those who believe everything they hear.

     (b)  I am not one of these who believes everything I hear.

     (c)  I am not one of those who believes everything he hears.

     (d)  I am not one of those who believes in everything one hears.

Ans: ( a )

2.  (a)  Cannot one do what one likes with one’s own?

     (b)  Cannot one do that one likes to do with his own?

     (c)  Cannot one do that one likes with his own?

     (d)  Cannot one do what he likes with his own?

Ans: ( a )

3.  (a)  There’s Mr. Som, whom they say is the best singer in the country.

     (b)  There’s Mr. Som, who they say is the best singer in the country.

     (c)  There is Mr. Som, whom they say is the best singer in the country.

     (d)  There is Mr. Som who, they say is the best singer in the country.

Ans: ( b )

4.  (a) Each of the students has done well. 

     (b) Each of the student has done well.

     (c)  Each of the students have done well. 

     (d) Each of the student have done well.

Ans: ( a )

5.   (a) Today we love, what tomorrow we hate; today we seek, what tomorrow we shun,
            today we desire, what tomorrow we fear.

      (b) Today, we love what tomorrow we hate, today, we seek what tomorrow we shun,
            today, we desire what tomorrow we fear.

     (c)  Today we love what tomorrow we hate, today we seek what tomorrow we shun,
            today we desire what tomorrow we fear.

     (d)  Today we love what tomorrow we hate; today we seek what tomorrow we shun;
            today we desire what tomorrow we fear.  

Ans: ( d )  Look at the punctuations

Directions for Questions 6 to 8. In each question, the word given is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to (d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

6. FALLOUT

  (a)  Nagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiation.

  (b)  People believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant.

  (c)  Who can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements?

   (d) The headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at
         the Public examination. 

Ans: ( d )

7. PASSING

  (a)  She did not have passing marks in mathematics

   (b)  The mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road.

   (c)  At the birthday party all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.

   (d)  A passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victim to the hospital 

Ans: ( a )

8. BOLT

   (a) The shopkeeper showed us a bolt of fine silk.

   (b) As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.

   (c) Could you please bolt the door?

   (d) The thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime.

 Ans: ( b )

Directions:  In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.

1.       It is written in Gita (a)/ that God incarnates (b)/ Himself (c)/ in times of trouble. (d)/ No error (e)

Ans: (a) Add ‘the’ before ‘Gita’.

       2.     It is being rainy day, (a)/ we decided not to go out (b)/ but to stay at home (c)/ and watch a
              movie. (d)/ No error (e)

                Ans: (a) Add ‘a’ before rainy day.

3.       The blinds (a)/ deserve (b)/ our sympathy. (c)/ No error (d)

Ans: (a) Replace ‘blind’ for ‘blinds’

       4.     Concurrent with his programme, (a)/ educational institutions may be urged (b)/ to inculcate
                patriotism (c)/ in each and every one of its pupils. (d) No error (e)

                Ans( d) Use ‘their’ in the place of ‘its’.

5.       She had shifted her residence (a)/ to this city to be (b)/ close with the child (c)/ she had wanted to adopt. (d)/ No error (e)

Ans: (c)  Replace ‘with’ by ‘to’

       6.     The author’s vision, (a)/ suffused by an innocence and warmth, (b)/ may not correspond (c)/ to the country as it is today. (d)/ No error (e)

                Ans: (b) Use ‘with’ instead of ‘by’

7.       And though one did not (a)/ quite believe his claim, (b)/ one saw no harm (c)/ in granting him permission. (d)/ No error (e)

Ans: (e)

8.       If you hate me, (a)/ then you should (b)/ leave my house. (c)/ No error (d)

Ans: (b)  delete ‘then’

9.     When he went out (a)/ he left the radio on (b)/ so that his parents shall think (c)/ that he was still in the house. (d)/ No error (e)

                Ans: (e)

10.    More leisure, as well as an abundance of goods, (a)/ are attainable (b)/ through automation. (c)/ No error (d)

Ans: (b)  Use ‘is’ instead of ‘are’.