SBI - English (for PO Recruitment)

SBI – English (for PO Recruitment)    (Sourced)

Directions:(Q1 -15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words/expressions are given in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

       

Radically changing monsoon patterns, reduction in the winter rice harvest and a quantum increase in respiratory diseases all part of the environmental doomsday scenario which is reportedly playing out in South Asia.  According to a United Nations Environment Program report, a deadly three km deep blanket of pollution comprising a fearsome cocktail of ash, acid, aerosols and other particles has enveloped this region. For India, already struggling to cope with a drought, the implications of this are devastating and further crop failure will amount to a life and death question for many Indians. The increase in premature deaths will have adverse social and economic consequences and a rise in morbidities will place an unbearable burden on our crumbling health system. And there is no one to blame but ourselves. Both official and corporate India has always been allergic to any mention of clean technology. Most mechanical two wheelers roll out off the assembly line without proper pollution control system. Little effort is made for R & D on simple technologies, which could make a vital difference to people's lives and the environment.

       

However, while there is no denying that South Asia must clean up its act, skeptics might question the timing of the haze report. The Kyoto meet on climate change is just two weeks away and the Stage is set for the usual battle between the developing world and the West, particularly the U.S. President Mr. Bush has adamantly refused to sign any protocol, which would mean a change in American consumption level. U.N. environment report will likely find a place in the U.S. arsenal as it plants an accusing finger towards controls like India and China. Yet the U.S. can hardly deny its own dubious role in the matter of erasing trading quotas. Richer countries can simply buy up excess credits from poorer countries and continue to pollute. Rather than try to get the better of developing countries, who undoubtedly have taken up environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch up with the West, the U.S. should take a look at the environmental profligacy, which is going on within. From opening up virgin territories for oil exploration to relaxing the standards for drinking water, Mr. Bush's policies are not exactly beneficial, not even to America's interests. We realize that we are all in this together and that pollution anywhere should be a global concern otherwise there will only be more tunnels at the end of the tunnel.

1. Both official and corporate India is allergic to:

(a) failure of monsoon

(b) poverty and inequality

(c) slowdown in industrial production

(d) mention of clean technology 

(e) crop failure

Ans: (d)

2. Which, according to the passage. Is a life and death question to many Indians?

(a) Increase in respiratory diseases

(b) Use of clean technology

(c) Thick blanket of pollution over the region

(d) Failure in crops 

(e) Dwindling agricultural yield

Ans: (d)

3. If the rate of premature deaths increases it will:

(a) exert added burden on our crumbling economy

(b) have adverse social and economic consequences

(c) make positive effect on our efforts to control population

(d) have less job aspirants in the ' society

(e) have healthy effect on our economy

Ans: (b)

4. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'profligacy' as used in the passage.

(a) wastefulness 

(b) conservation

(c) upliftmeht

(d) criticality

(e) denouncement

Ans: (a)

Explanations :  The meaning of the word Profligacy (Noun) is using money, time, materials etc. in a careless way; wastefulness. Hence, profligacy and wastefulness are synonymous,

5. According to the passage, India cannot tolerate any further:

(a) crop failure

(b) deterioration of health care system

(c) increase in respiratory diseases

(d) proliferation of nuclear devices

(e) social and economic consequences

Ans: (a)

6. According to the passage, two wheeler industries is not adequately concerned about

(a) passenger safety on the roads

(b) life cover insurance of the vehicle owners

(c) pollution control system In the vehicles 

(d) rising cost of the two wheelers

(e) rising cost of the petrol in the country

Ans: (c)

7. What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report just before the Kyoto meet, as indicated in the passage?

(a) United Nations is working hand in glove with U.S.

(b) Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.

(c) Drawing attentions of the world towards devastating effects of environment degradation.

(d) U.S. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the forthcoming meet 

(e) The meet is a part of political agenda of the U.N.

Ans: (d)

8. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'allergic' as used in the passage.

(a) liking

(b) passionate

(c) possessive

(d) crumbling

(e) repugnant

Ans: (e)

Explanations:  The word Allergic (Adjective) means having an allergy to some thing: having strong dislike of something/ somebody; a medical condition that causes you to react badly or feel ill or sick when you eat or touch a particular substance.

Look at the sentence: I like cats but unfortunately I am allergic to them. You could see he was allergic to housework. Out of the given alternatives repugnant (Adjective) means making you feel strong dislike or disgust.

Look at the sentence:  The idea of eating meat was repugnant to her. We found his suggestion absolutely repugnant. Hence, repugnant and allergic are synonymous.

9. Which of the following is the indication of environmental degradation in South Asia?

(a) Social and economic inequality

(b) Crumbling health care system

(c) Inadequate pollution control system

(d) Overemphasis on technology

(e) Radically changing monsoon pattern 

Ans: (e)

10. What must we realize, according to the passage?

(a) No country should show superiority over other countries

(b) U.N. is putting in hard efforts in the direction of pollution control

(c) All countries must join hands in fighting pollution 

(d) Nobody should travel through tunnel to avoid health hazards

(e) We all must strive hard to increase agricultural production

Ans: (c)

11. Which of the following finds place in the United Nations Environment Programmed Report?

(a) Changing monsoon patterns

(b) Substantial increase in respiratory diseases

(c) A serious cover of pollution over the region

(d) Reduction in winter rice harvest

(e) None of these

Ans: (c)

12. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

(a) U.N. environment report blames countries like India and China

(b) Developing countries have taken environment shortcuts in their bid to catch up with the West.

(c) U.S. is also to be blamed for environmental degradation and pollution

(d) Indians cannot afford to have any further crop failure

(e) U.S. has tightened safety standards for drinking water   

Ans: (e)

13. According to the passage, Kyoto meet is going to witness

(a) calm and dispassionate thinking on the issue of pollution control

(b) a blaming game between developed and developing countries

(c) refusal of U.N. to work as arbitrator

(d) U.S. agreeing to look at the issue of lowering its consumption

(e) countries agreeing for higher monetary allocation to R & D.

Ans: (b)

14. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'dubious' as used in the passage?

(a) unquestionable 

(b) dissimilar

(c) illegal

(d) antisocial

(e) innovative

Ans: (a)

Explanations :  The word Dubious (Adjective) means not certain and slightly suspicious about something: suspicious, doubtful.

Look at the sentence: I was rather dubious about the whole idea.  They indulged in some highly dubious business practices to obtain their current position in the market. Hence, dubious and unquestionable are antonymous.

15. Choose the word which is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'morbidity' as used in the passage.

(a) powerfulness

(b) healthiness 

(c) softness

(d) acuteness

(e) purposeful

Ans: (b)

Explanations :  The word Morbidity (Noun) means a strong interest in sad or unpleasant things, especially disease or death. Hence, morbidity and healthiness are antonymous.

SBI - Reasoning (for PO Recruitment)

SBI – Reasoning (for PO Recruitment)

Directions:(Q. 1– 7) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (e) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Group of Letters :                          W  R  A  P  G  B  M  U  S  E  F  T  N  D

Digit/Symbol Codes :                     $   8   !  2   7  #   9  @  ?  5  b  4  *   6

Conditions :

I. If the middle letter is a vowel, the codes for the first and the fourth letters are to be interchanged.

II. If the first two letters are consonants, the first letter is to be coded, no code may be given to the

second letter and the remaining three letters are to be coded.

III. If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as the code for the consonant.

1.            N E A S T

(a) ?5!*4

(b) ?5!4*

(c) 4*!5?

(d) 45!?

(e) None of these

Ans: (a)

2.            D A E W P

(a) 6!5$2

(b) $!562

(c) 6!52$

(d) $265!

(e) None of these

Ans: (b)

3.            P E F T G

(a) 25b42

(b) 2b4G

(c) 25b47

(d) 47b25

(e) None of these

Ans: (c) (Since none of the conditions apply, the letters are simply coded)

4.            S M G B E

(a) ?975#

(b) 97#5?

(c) ?97#5

(d) ?#79?

(e) None of these

Ans: (e)

5.            U G R E N

(a) *785@

(b) *785*

(c) @785@

(d) @85*

(e) None of these

Ans: (b)

6.            R B M F N

(a) 8#9b4

(b) b*98#

(c) 89b*

(d) 8#9b*

(e) None of these

Ans: (c)

7.            M U T W A

(a) 9@$4!

(b) 94$!

(c) 94@!$

(d) 9@4$!

(e) None of these

Ans: (d)  (Since none of the conditions apply the letters are simply coded)

Directions:(Q. 8–12) Below in each question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements

may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or of a common

cause. Or one of the statement may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer as:

(a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

(b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

(c) if both statements I and II are independent causes.

(d) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

(e) if both statements I and II are effects of some common causes.

8.            I. There has been mass recruitment of IT professionals by Indian IT companies

II. Many developed countries are increasingly outsourcing IT related functions to India and China.

Ans: (b)

9.            I. Many farmers have given up jute cultivation as it is no longer economically viable.

II. The textile ministry has proposed a hike in the Minimum Support Price of jute.

Ans: (a)

10.          I. The government is considering changes in the Land Acquisition Act.

II. Several large infrastructure development projects have been stalled due to unavailability of land.

Ans: (e)

11.          I. The Government is considering the possibility of involving private sector companies in highway construction projects.

II. The implementation of many highway projects undertaken by government agencies is behind schedule in various states.

Ans: (b)

12.          I. The price of aircraft fuel has risen during the past few months.

II. Many passenger airlines in India have been forced to cut their air fares by about 10 per cent.

Ans: (d)

HCL - Aptitude

HCL - Aptitude

1. How many of the integers between 25 and 45 are even?

(a)    21           (b)20                     (c)11                      (d)10                     (e)9

Ans: (d)

2. If the taxi fares were Re 1.00 for the first 1/5 mile and Rs 0.20 for each subsequent 1/5 miles thereafter, then what would be the fare for a trip of 3 miles?

(a)    Rs 1.56                  (b)Rs 2.40            (c)RS 3.00            (d)Rs 3.80            (e)Rs 4.20

Ans: (d) 

(The fare for the first mile will be Rs 1.80 and for every subsequent mile it will be Re 1.00)

3. A computer routine was developed to generate two numbers (x and y) the first being a random

number between 0 and 100 inclusive, and the second being less than or equal to the square root

of the first. Each of the following pair satisfies the routine except:

(a)    (99,10)                 (b) (85,9)             (c) (50,7)              (d) (1,1)                (e) (1,0)

Ans: (a)

( easy to answer from the choice. Square of 10 will be 100 and will not meet the condition)

4. A warehouse had a square floor with area 10,000 sq. meters. A rectangular addition was built

along one entire side of the warehouse that increased the area of the floor by one-half as much as the original floor. How many meters did the addition extend beyond the original buildings?

(a)    10                           (b) 20                    (c) 50                     (d) 200                  (e) 500

Ans: (c)

(The area of the square floor is 10,000 sq. meters. Hence each side is 100 meters. After the rectangular addition the area has become 10000 + 5000 = 15,000 sq. meters. Hence the distance extended on one side is 100 + 50 = 150. Area 100 * 150 = 15,000.)

Note: This question had appeared in TCS 2014 paper also.

   

5. A digital wristwatch was set accurately at 8.30 a.m and it started losing 2 seconds every 5 minutes.

What time was indicated on the watch at 6.30 p.m of the same day if the watch had operated continuously during that time ?

(a)    5:56                        (b) 5:58                 (c) 6.00                                 (d) 6.23                 (e) 6.26

Ans: (e) 

(The watch will lose 24 seconds in one hour and in 10 hours will lose 240 seconds or 4 minutes)

6. A 5 litre jug contains 4 litres of a salt water solution that is 15 percent salts. If 1.5 litres of the

solution spills out of the jug, and the jug is then filled to capacity with water, approximately

what percent of the resulting solution in the jug is salt?

(a)    7.5%                      (b) 9.5%               (c)  10.5%             (d) 12%                 (e) 15%

Ans: (a)

The quantum of salt in the 4 ltr solution is 15% of 4 -> 0.6 ltr.

The salt spilled along with 1.5 ltr solution is 15% of 1.5 -> 0.225 ltr.

Remaining salt in the solution is 0.6 – 0.225 -> 0.375 ltr.

Remaining solution 4 – 1.5 = 2.5 ltrs. Additional amount of water poured is 2.5 ltrs (Since the capacity of the jar is 5 ltrs.

Quantum of salt in this is 0.375 ltrs and the percentage of salt is 0.375/5 * 100 = 7.50%.

  

 7.  A merchant sells an item at 20 percent discount and still makes a gross profit of 20 percent on

the cost. What percent of gross profit on cost would it have been if the item was sold without the discount?

(a)    20%                        (b) 40%                 (c) 50%                                 (d) 60%                 (e) 66.6%

Ans: (c)

Let the cost price be Rs 100.00 He makes a profit of 20% after allowing discount.

So, the realised price is Rs 120.00 and his profit is Rs 120 – Rs 100 = Rs 20 (20%)

This realised price is after allowing a discount of 20%. In other words the realised price

Is 80% of the marked up price.

Hence the marked price is 120 * 100/80 = Rs 150.00

If the discount was not allowed this would have been the selling price and the profit

Percentage on cost would be Rs 150 – Rs 100 = Rs 50 (50%)

8. A millionaire bought a job lot of hats of which 1/4 were brown. The millionaire sold 2/3 of the

hats including 4/5 of the brown hats. What fraction of the unsold hats was brown?

(a)    1/60                       (b) 1/15                (c) 3/20                 (d) 3/5                  (e) 3/4

Ans: (c)

For convenience sake let us assume the total number of hats purchased as 300.

Of this, the Brown hats were 1/4^th equals to 75 hats.

2/3 of the total hats were sold. ie 200 hats were sold including 4/5 of the brown hats ie 60 hats.

Remaining total hats were 300 – 200 = 100.

Remaining Brown hats were 75 – 60 = 15. Fraction of unsold Brown hats was 15/100 = 3/20.

Note: Similar question had appeared in TCS 2014 papers.

9. How many integers n greater than and less than 100 are there such that, if the digits of n are

reversed, the resulting integer is n+9 ?

(a)    5                              (b) 6                       (c) 7                       (d) 8                       (e) 9

Ans: (d)

Lets say, n=10x+y as 100>n>10 so , if we reverse the digit , n becomes 10y+x but according to Qs, 10y+x = n-9 => 10y+x = 10x+y - 9 => 9(x-y) = 9 => x-y =1 hence we need to find out the 2 digits where diff is 1 so, the Nos are , 21(12) , 32(23) , 43(34) , 54(45) , 65(56) , 76(67), 87(78) , 98(89) There are only eight such numbers.  Hence the answer is 8.

10.An investor purchased shares of a company at a certain price. If the shares increase in price by Re 0.25 per share and the total increase for the x shares was Rs 12.50, how many shares of the company he had purchased?

(a)    25                           (b) 50                    (c) 75                     (d) 100                  (e) 125

Ans: (b)

11. At a special sale, 5 tickets can be purchased for the price of 3 tickets. If 5 tickets are purchased

at the sale, the amount saved will be What percent of the original price of the 5 tickets?

(a)     20%                       (b) 33.3%             (c)  40%                (d) 60%                 (e) 66.6%

Ans: (c)

Let cost of each ticket be Rs 20.00 Then cost of 5 tickets would be Rs 100.00

But, 5 tickets were purchased for the cost of 3 tickets -> 20 x 3 = 60.00

Hence the amount saved is Rs 100.00 – Rs 60.00 -> Rs 40.00 or 40%

  

12. Working independently, Tina can do a certain job in 12 hours. Working independently, Ann can

do the same job in 9 hours. If Tina Works independently at the job for 8 hours and then Ann

works independently, how many hours will it take Ann to complete the remainder of the jobs?

(a)     2/3                        (b)  3/4                                 (c) 1                       (d) 2                       (e) 3

Ans: (e)

Tina in one hour can do 1/12 job and 8 hours she has done 8/12 or 2/3 job.

Remaining job is 1 – 2/3 = 1/3.

Ann in one hour can do 1/9 job and for completing the remaining 1/3 job she would have taken

(1/3)/(1/9) -> 3 hours.

HCL - English Verbal

HCL – English Verbal

Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow:

A spate of soul-searching is guaranteed by two major anniversaries that loom this year: the abolition of the slave trade in the British Empire in 1807, and the Act of Union of England and Scotland in 1707. Both will feed into Britain's nagging sense of self-doubt: who are we? As the debates around integrated and multi-culturalism show no sign of flagging, both anniversaries will be mind for their contemporary relevance.

Television programmes, books, ceremonies, conferences, and newspaper supplements have been in the planning for months.

Some might regard this self-preferentialism as tedious; they might advocate an apology for the slave trade and let's be done with 2007's anniversaries. But our reckoning with British history has been so limited that these two anniversaries provide us with a good opportunity for an overdue reality check. Any chance of reinventing a plausible national identity now (as many are keen to do) is only possible if we develop a much better understanding of how our nation behaved in the past and how nationalisms (English, Scottish, and British) were elaborately created over the past few hundred years — and how incomplete and fragile that process always was.

The coincidence of these two anniversaries is fortuitous. The abolition of the slave trade is a painful reminder of British imperial history, which we have, incredible, managed to largely forget. Who remembers the Bengal famine or Hula camp, the empire's opium trade with China or our invention of concentration camps in the Boer war? We too easily overlook how empire was a linchpin to British national identity, vital to welding Scotland and England together. Indeed, historian Linda Colley suggests three ingredients for British identity: “Great Britain is an invented nation that was not founded on the suppression of older loyalties so much as superimposed on them, and that was heavily dependent for its raison d'etre on a broadly Protestant culture, on the treat and tonic of recurrent war, especially war with France, and on the triumphs, profits and otherness represented by a massive overseas empire.”

These three props for Britishness have collapsed: Protestant Christianity has declined sharply, war with France is the pastime only of a few drunken football fans, and the empire is no more. No wonder Britishness is on the decline over the past couple of decades. People have become increasingly likely to define themselves in polls as English or Scottish rather than British.

This is the social trend in defining identity that politicians such as Gordon Brown watch closely. Could this re-emergence of the older loyalties to which Ms Colley refers have political consequences? Could the Scottish National Party translate that into significant electoral gains in the Scottish elections only a few days after the official commemoration of the Act of Union in May?

It's not just the Scots who could decide they've had enough of the English — the feeling could become mutual. The grumbles are getting louder about Scottish MPs who vote on legislation affecting the English and the disproportionate amount of public spending swallowed up by the Scots.

Mr Brown clearly has a vested interest in stilling such complaints. He's been at the forefront of an establishment attempt to redefine Britishness on the grounds of “common values” such as fair play and tolerance. Who is going to define Englishness? Julian Baggini has a stab at it in a book to be published in March, ‘ Welcome to Every town: A Journey into the English Mind’. He spent six months living in Rotherham to get beyond the metropolitan, liberal elite's perceptions of Englishness and establish what most people (that is, the white working class) understand by their Englishness. Parochial, tightly knit, focused on family and local communities; nostalgic, fearful of the future and insecure, a dogged belief in common sense these are his conclusions. Mr Baggini confesses to feeling that his six months in Rotherham was like visiting a foreign country, and no doubt many of the people he met would regard six months in London as profoundly alienating. How do you weld national identities out of global metropolises disconnected from hinterland? Englishness is riven with huge regional and class divides. The stakes are high-for example, a rising British National Party vote, a fear of asylum, and hostility to Islam. The anniversary of the Act of union will provide a stage for all this to be played out. It's just as painful a commemoration for the English as for the Scottish. It required one nation to lose its sovereignty and the other its identity.

1. According to the passage, the two major anniversaries will

(a)  give an impetus to the questioning of British national identity.

(b)  set the Britons thinking who they really are.

(c)  be just another occasion to raise the issue of British national identity.

(d) be just another occasion to give rise to a debate on multiculturalism.

(e) not be celebrated because of the shame attached with slave trade.

Ans: (a)

2. According to Linda Colley, Great Britain owes its nation-state concept to

(a) ceding of its territory by Scotland to England.

(b) a shared relation of race, religion and economy.

(c) what can today be seen as a concept of free trade area.

(d) the perpetuation of slave trade.

(e) commonality of interest between its constituents.

Ans: (e)

3. Going by the passage, which of the following may instil a sense of national identity among the Britons?

(a) The return of Catholics to the Protestant fold

(b) Britain going to war with Germany

(c) Britain going to war as an Allied force

(d) Regular football matches between British and French clubs

(e) Any of the above

Ans: (b)

4. According to the facts stated in the passage, if England and Scotland decide to split,

(a) it is the former that stands to gain.

(b) it is the latter that stands to gain.

(c) it will be a win-win situation.

(d) it will be a lose-lose situation.

(e) both the parties will lose their face but gain materially

Ans: (a)

5. According to the passage, the post-modern mind views imperialism as

(a) something that was necessary in the context of the times.

(b) a thing of the past which need not be mentioned further.

(c) a blot on the history of mankind.

(d) the white man's burden.

(e) a concept relevant even in the present times, given the inability of the developing countries to catch up with the West.

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. 6-12): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

6) The truth is that in a highly capital-intensive business _______ deep pockets, domestic civil aviation is _______ undercapitalized.
(a) ascertaining, highly
(b ) requiring, woefully
(c) sustaining, alarmingly
(d) balancing, astonishingly
(e) demanding, niggardly
Ans: (b)

7) Time has now come for all agencies working in the development sector to launch a multi-pronged __________ to _________ malnutrition.
(a) system, abjure
(b) weapon, annihilate
(c) policy, deviate
(d) strategy, eradicate
(e) fact, demolish
Ans: (d)

8) A well- _________, physically and mentally active ________ alone can contribute to the speedier economic progress of a nation.
(a) educated, subjects
(b) organized, systems
(c) advanced, brethren
(d) formulated, citizens
(e) nourished, populace
Ans: (e)

9) We must develop _____ systems from the village upwards and up to the national level to constantly _______ the nutritional status of the people.
(a) monitoring,  review
(b) machinery, tackle
(c) efficient, emancipate
(d) sound, harbour
(e) inherent, inundate
Ans: (a)

10) Democracy has taken a ______ in a system which promotes sycophancy and _____.
(a) dive, bureaucracy
(b) delve, dictatorship
(c) beating, mediocrity
(d) ride, heredity
(e) privilege, intolerance
Ans: (c)

11) People in power love to _______ the freedom of expression by the players because it might ______ their position.
(a) suppress, undermine
(b) counter, reveal
(c) contradict, focus
(d) exploit, hamper
(e) violate, degrade
Ans: (a)

12) Rituals play an important role in ____ growth and growth of our minds to its full _____.
(a) cultural, measure
(b) religious, maximum
(c) mystical, exposure
(d) traditional, limits
(e) spiritual, potential
Ans: (e)

13) If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word ORGANISED, which of the following will be the third of that word? If no such word can be made give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give 'Y' as the answer.
(a) N                      (b) D                      (c) S                       (d) X                      (e) Y

Ans: (c)  Word: NOSE

14) The position (s) of how many letters in the word PRODUCT will remain unchanged, when the letters within the word are rearranged alphabetically?
(a) None
(b) One

(c)  Two

(d) Three

(e) more than three

Ans: (b) 

Quans - 14 (Bank Exams)

Quans – 14 (Bank Exams)

1. R = QS—4 where S=8 and R=16. When S=10 then R is equal to:

(a) 11                     (b) 14                    (c) 20                     (d) 21
Answer: (d)

R = QS – 4. Substituting the values of R and S we get -> 16 = 8Q – 4 -> 8Q = 20 -> Q = 2.5

Hence when S = 10 the equation will become -> R = (10*2.5) – 4 = 21.

2. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number?

(a) 64                     (b) 56                    (c) 106                   (d) None of these
Ans : (b)

The total of five numbers -> 213 x 5 = 1065 less

The total of first two numbers -> 233.5 x 2 = 467 ie 1065 – 467 = 598 less

The total of last two numbers ->  271 x 2 = 542  ie  598 – 542 = 56

The third number is 56.

3. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies  increases by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, then what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ?

(a) 13 : 10 : 18     (b) 10 : 13 : 17    (c) 13 : 15 : 18     (d) None of these
Ans : (d)
The total parts of employees in the three companies initially is 4 + 5 + 6 = 15.

So for convenient sake let us assume the total employees in the three companies as 450.

Then the number of employees in A, B and C will be …. 120, 150 and 180.

The percentage increase in the three companies takes place as 25%, 30% and 50%.

The number of employees after increase in company A will be 120 + 25% -> 120 + 30 = 150

The number of employees after increase in company B will be 150 + 30% -> 150 + 45 = 195

The number of employees after increase in company C will be 180 + 50% -> 180 + 90 = 270

Hence the new ratio of employees is 150 : 195 : 270 reducing -> 10 : 13 : 18 (Not there in the choice)

  

4. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ?

(a) 14328              (b) 14438             (c) 13428              (d) 13248             (e) None of these
Ans : (e)

5. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ?

(a) 3520                (b) 3515                (c) 3495                (d) 3490                (e) None of these
Ans : (a)

6. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46 then the dividend is how much?

(a) 4236                (b) 4306                (c) 4336                (d) 5336                (e) None of these
Ans: (d)

Dividend = Divisor x Quotient + Reminder.

The reminder is 46 and hence the divisor = 46 x 5 = 230.

The divisor is 10 times the quotient. Thus we have the quotient as 230/10 = 23.

We now have the equation Dividend = 230 x 23 + 46 = 5336.

Hence the answer is 5336.

7. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:

(a) 0                       (b) 2                       (c) 6                       (d) 8                       (e) None of these

Ans: (a)

Please note the number of ‘0’s in any factorial is given by the formula x/5 + x/5² where ‘x’ is the number of terms in the factorial and the quotient alone is taken for the number of zeros leaving the reminder.

Applying the above we have 9/5 + 9/25 this will give only one completed quotient and hence the answer is one ‘0’

8. If -1 ≤ x ≤ 2 and 1≤ y ≤ 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :

(a) 0                       (b) -3                     (c) -4                      (d) -5                     (e) None of these

Ans: (a)

Since ‘x’and ‘y’ are of positive value we shall work out the two possibilities.

Let ‘x’ be 1 and ‘y’ be 2. Then we have the value 2*2 – 3*1 =1 (not there in the choice)

Let ‘x’ be 2 and ‘y’ be 3. Then we have the value 2*3 – 3*2 = 0 (available in the choice)

9. If n is a negative (–ve) no. then which of the following is least.

(a) 0                       (b) –n                    (c) 2n                     (d) n^2                 (e) None of these
Ans: (c)

10. On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is

(a) Rs. 370           (b) Rs. 385           (c) Rs. 390            (d) Rs. 400          

Ans: (c)
Let ‘x’ be the profit and loss in the two transactions. Then we have

C.P + x = 425 ……….(i)

C.P – x = 355 ……….(ii)    subtracting (ii) from (i) we get 2x = 70 and ‘x’ =35.

From (ii) C.P = 355 + x -> 355 + 35 = 390.

11. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same number of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was:

(a) 30 dozen       (b) 40 dozen       (c) 50 dozen       (d) 60 dozen
Ans: (d)

The average cost of the two purchases of Oranges is (10 + 8)/2 = Rs 9 per dozen.

The oranges were sold for Rs 11 per dozen giving a profit of Rs 2/- per dozen.

The total profit was  Rs 120 and the number of oranges originally purchased by him

Was 120/2 = 60 dozens.

12. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21. If the same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be:

(a) 1                       (b) 2                       (c) 7                       (d) 21                    (e) None of these
Ans: (b)

Since 19 is divisor of 114 without any remainder, divide the remainder 21 by 19 that will leave a remainder of 2

13. Which largest No. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:

(a) 99909              (b) 99981             (c) 99990              (d) 99999             (e) None of these
Ans: (c)

Infosys - Verbal Ability - 9 (Recent)

Infosys – Verbal Ability – 9 (Recent)

Directions (1 – 5):  Read the following passage thoroughly and answer the set of questions that follow:

In the world today we make health an end in itself. We have forgotten that health really means to enable a person to do his work and do it well. A lot of modern medicine and this includes many patients as well as many physicians pays very little attention to health but very much attention to those who imagine that they are ill. Our great concern with health is shown by the medical columns in newspapers. The health articles in popular magazines and the popularity of television programmers and all those books on medicine. We talk about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is more people with imaginary illness. The healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health. He should be using health to work. The work done shows the good health and that through work good health is possible.

1.  Modern medicine is primarily concerned with
(a) promotion of good health
(b) people suffering from imaginary illness
(c)  people suffering from real illness
(d)  increased efficiency in work
Ans: (b)

2.  The passage suggests that
(a)  health is an end in itself
(b)  health is blessing
(c)  health is only means to an end
(d)  we should not talk about health
Ans: (c)

3.  Talking about the health all time makes people
(a)  always suffer from imaginary illness
(b)  sometimes suffer from imaginary illness
(c)  rarely suffer from imaginary illness
(d)  often suffer from imaginary illness
Ans: (d)

4.  The passage tells us
(a)  how medicine should be manufactured
(b)  what healthy man should or should not do
(c)  what television programmers should be about
(d)  how best to imagine illness
Ans: (b)

5.   A healthy man should be concerned with
(a)  his work which good health makes possible
(b)  looking after his health
(c)  his health which makes work possible
(d)  talking about health
Ans: (a)
 

Directions: fill in the blanks with the best alternatives:

6. This --------- was a joke to many, a source of unease to an equal number and at times, the bank of     his existence but ----------against his search for justice.

a) aptitude – expedient                                                b) cliché ---- innocuous

c) parsimony ----- indispensable                                d) wrath ---- bulwark

Ans: (a)

7.  A -------- world would -------- us of much complexity

a) polarized – yoke                          b) paradoxical ---- fleece

c) pluralistic ---- purge                    d) singular ---- repudiate

Ans: (c)

8.  In a complex ---------- the contributions of an individual to the eventual decision cannot be readily -----------.

a) hierarchy --- isolated                                 b) scenario ------ condescended

c) phenomenon --- realigned     d) pedagogy ---- censored

Ans: (b)

9.  The feat extra-ordinarily --------- under what should have been extremely ------- circumstances.

a) valiant --- provocative               b) pacified ---- provoking

c) sceptical --- tranquil                   d) restive --- ravaging

Ans: (a)

10.  The louse turned out to be anything but ------ and in two days the things were again --------.

a) congenial --- conducive            b) cohesive – sanguinary

c) acrimonious – disarranged      d) amicable – unprecedented

Ans: (d)

11. Because the monkeys under study are -------- the presence of human beings, they typically --------- human observers and go about their business.

a) ambivalent about ----- welcome          b) pleased with ---- snub

c) habituated to ---- disregard                    d) inhibited by ---- seek

Ans: (c)

12.  Given her previously expressed interest and the ambitious tone of her recent speeches, the senator’s attempt to convince the public that she is not interested in running for a second term is ----

a) laudable          b) likely                c) authentic        d) futile

Ans: (d)

13. Many of her followers remain --------- to her, and even those who have rejected her leadership are unconvinced of the --------- of replacing her during the current turmoil.

a) opposed – urgency                    b) friendly – harm

c) loyal – wisdom                             d)cool--usefulness

Ans: (c)

14.  Unlike many recent interpretations of Beethoven’s piano sonatas, the recitalist’s performance was a delightfully free and introspective one; it was also, seemingly paradoxically, quite ---------.

a) appealing       b) exuberant     c) idiosyncratic                                 d) controlled

Ans: (a)

15. Species with relatively --------- metabolic rates, including hibernators, generally live longer than those whose metabolic rates are more rapid.

a) prolific             b) sedentary      c) sluggish           d) measured

Ans: (c)

Read the following passage and then, answer the questions that follow:

(16-20): Organizations are institutions in which members compete for status and power. They compete for resource of the organization, for example finance to expand their own departments, for career advancement and for power to control the activities of others. In pursuit of these aims, groups are formed and sectional interests emerge. As a result, policy decisions may serve the ends of political and career systems rather than those of the concern. In this way, the goals of the organization may be displaced in favour of sectional interests and individual ambition. These preoccupations sometimes prevent the emergence of organic systems. Many of the electronic firms in the study had recently created research and development departments employing highly qualified and well paid scientists and technicians. Their high pay and expert knowledge were sometimes seen as a threat to the established order of rank, power and privilege. Many senior managers had little knowledge of technicality and possibilities of new developments and electronics. Some felt that close cooperation with the experts in an organic system would reveal their ignorance and show their experience was now redundant.

16. The theme of the passage is
(a)  Groupism in organizations
(b)  Individual ambitions in organizations
(c)  Frustration of senior managers
(d)  Emergence of sectional interests in organizations
Ans: (d)

17. "Organic system" as related to the organization implies its
(a)  growth with the help of expert knowledge
(b)  growth with input from science and technology
(c)  steady all around development
(d)  natural and unimpeded growth
Ans: (b)

18. Policy decision in organization would involve
(a)  cooperation at all levels in the organization
(b)  modernization of the organization
(c)  attracting highly qualified personnel
(d)  keeping in view the larger objectives of the organizations
Ans: (c)

19. The author makes out a case for
(a)  organic system
(b)  Research and Development in organizations
(c)  an understanding between senior and middle level executives
(d)  a refresher course for senior managers
Ans: (a)

20. The author tends to the senior managers as
(a)  ignorant and incompetent
(b)  a little out of step with their work environment
(c)  jealous of their younger colleagues
(d) robbed of their rank, power and privilege
Ans:(a)