Reasoning for Bank Exams - 1

Reasoning for Bank Exams - 1

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:

The convenience of online shopping is what I like best about it. Where else can you shop even at midnight wearing your night suit? You do not have to wait in a line or wait till the shop assistant is ready to help you with your purchases. It is a much better experience as compared to going to a retail store. — A consumer’s view.

1. Which of the following can be a strong argument in favour of retail store owners?

(1) Online shopping portals offer a great deal of discounts which retail stores offer only during the sale season
(2) One can compare a variety of products online which cannot be done at retail stores
(3) Many online shopping portals offer the ‘cash on delivery’ feature which is for those who are sceptical about online payments
(4) Many consumers prefer shopping at retail stores which are nearer to their houses
(5) In online shopping the customer may be deceived as he cannot touch the product he is paying for.

Ans: (5)

2.  Many manufacturing companies are now shifting base to the rural areas of the country as there is a scarcity of space in urban areas. Analysts say that this shift will not have a huge impact on the prices of the products manufactured by these companies as only about 30% consumers live in urban areas. Which of the following maybe a consequence of the given information?

(1)The prices of such products will decrease drastically in the urban areas
(2) People living in urban areas will not be allowed to work in such manufacturing companies
(3) These manufacturing companies had set-ups in the urban areas before shifting base
(4) Those who had already migrated to the urban areas will not shift back to rural areas
(5) The number of people migrating from rural to urban areas in search of jobs may reduce

Ans: (5)

3.  ‘Pets are not allowed in the park premises’ – A notice put up at the park entrance by the authority that is responsible for maintenance of the park.

Which of the following can be an assumption according to the given information? (An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted)

(1)At least some people who visit the park have pets.
(2) This is the only park which does not allows pets
(3) People who ignored this notice were fined
(4) There are more than one entrances to the park
(5) Many people have now stopped visiting the park

Ans: (1)

4. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An= inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)

(1)One can shop online only at night
(2) Those who are not comfortable using computers can never enjoy the experience of online shopping.
(3) All retail stores provide shopping assistants to each and every customer
(4) The consumer whose view is presented has shopped at retail stores as well as online
(5) The customer whose view is presented does not have any retail stores in her vicinity.

Ans: (4)

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Despite repeated announcements that mobile phones were not allowed in the examination hall, three students were caught with their mobile phones.

(A) Mobile phones nowadays have a lot of features and it is easy to cheat with their help.
(B) The invigilator must immediately confiscate the mobile phones and ask the students to leave the exam hall immediately.
(C) Mobile phones are very expensive and leaving them in bags outside the exam hall is not safe.
(D) There have been incidents where students who left the exam hall early stole the mobile phones kept in the bags of the students who were writing the exam.
(E) The school authorities must ask the students to leave their phones in the custody of the invigilator before the exam in order to avoid thefts of mobile phones
(F) None of the other students were carrying their phones in the exam hall.

5. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be a strong argument in favour of, the three students who were caught with the mobile phone?

(1) Only (A)

(2) Both (A) and (B)
(3) Both (C) and (D)

(4) Only (C)
(5) Both (B) and (D)

Ans: (3)

6. Which of the following among (A), (B), (E) and (F) may be the reason behind the school making such announcements before the exam?

(1) Only (B)

(2) Both (B) and (E)
(3) Only (F)

(4) Only (A)
(5) Both (E) and (A)

Ans: (4)

7. Which of the following among (A), (B), (D) and (F) can be an immediate course of action for the invigilator?

(1) Only (B)

(2) Both (A) and (D)
(3) Only (A)

(4) Both (D) and (F)
(5) Only (F)

Ans: (1)

Directions: In each of the questions below, two/three/ statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follow
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow

8-9. Statements (Common):

Some squares are circles.
No circle is a triangle.
No line is a square.

8. Conclusions:

I. All squares can never be triangles.
II. Some lines are circles.

Ans: (1)

9. Conclusions:

I. No triangle is a square.
II. No line is a circle.

Ans: (4)

10-11. Statements (Common):

All songs are poems.
All poems are rhymes.

No rhyme is a paragraph.

10. Conclusions:

I. No song is a paragraph.
II. No poem is a paragraph.

Ans: (5)

11. Conclusions:

I. All rhymes are poems.
II. All songs are rhymes.

Ans: (2)

12. Statements:

Some dews are drops.
All drops are stones.

Conclusions:

1.Atleast some dews are stones.
II. Atleast some stones are drops.

Ans: (5)

Infosys Reasoning (Recent) - 1

Infosys Reasoning (Recent) - 1

1.       There is a number that is little less than 500, which when divided by 3,4,5,7 leaves no remainder. Find the number.  (3 marks)
Ans: 420
The answer is the LCM of 3,4,5,7 that is 420.

Similar questions have come in other papers, where it is said there will be a remainder of 1. In that case the answer would be 420 + 1 = 421.  

2.       One day Harry and I set our watches together. We were not aware that my watch was going faster by 2 min per hour and Harry’s watch was going slower by 1 min per hour. After sometime, we discovered that my watch was one hour ahead of Harry’s watch.  After how much time we noticed this?  (3 marks)                     
Ans: 20 hours.

For every hour the difference between the two watches was 2 + 1 = 3 minutes.

The difference in time between the two watches was one hour and Harry’s watch was ahead of mine.

Thus the number of hours elapsed is 60minutes / 3 minutes -> 20 hours.  

3.       There is well of depth 30m and a frog is at the bottom of the well. The frog jumps 3m in one day and falls back by 2m in the same day. How many days it would take the frog to come out of the well?

Ans: The frog would come out on the 28^th day.

Every day the frog climbs up net 1m. On the 27^th day it will be 3m below the top of the well and on the 28^th day when it jumps 3m it would come out of the well.

4.       If 5/2 artists make 5/2 paintings using 5/2 canvases in 5/2 days then how many artists 
are required to make 25 paintings using 25 canvases in 25 days? 

Ans: 25. (The only inverse variable is artists and days and the other two are direct variables)

5.       If I walk with 30 miles/hour I reach 1 hour before and if I walk with 20 miles/hour I reach 1 
hour late. Find the distance between 2 points and if the exact time of reaching destination 
is 11 am then find the speed at which I walk. 
Ans: 120miles and 24 miles/hour

Let D be the distance. Then we have one straight equation -> D/20 – D/30 = 2 hours.

Solving this we get the value of D as 120 miles.

Now walking at 20 miles/hour I am late by one hour. This speed would take me six hours to cover the distance and I am late by one hour. In other words I should cove the distance in 5 hours. Then my speed will have to be 120 / 5 = 24 miles/hour. This applies when I walk at 30 miles/hour in which case I am earlier by one hour. 

6.       The product of 5 different temperatures is 12. If all of them are integers then find all the 
temperatures.
Ans:  -2, -1, 1, 2, 3 

7.       There are 9 cities numbered 1 to 9. From how many cities the flight can start so as to 
reach the city 8 either directly or indirectly such the path formed is divisible by 3. 
Ans: Three cities 1, 3 and 6.

City 1 – The path will be 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,

City 3 -  The path will be 2, 1, 9

City 6 -  The path will be 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 9

8.       Sometime after 10:00 PM a murder took place. A witness claimed that the clock 
must have stopped at the time of the shooting. It was later found that the position of 
both the hands were the same but their positions had interchanged. Tell the time of the 
shooting (both actual and claimed). 
Ans: Time of shooting -> 11:54 PM  Claimed Time -> 10:59 PM. 

9.       What is the next number in the series is 1 , 2 , 4 , 13 , 31 , 112 , ? 
Ans: 224. 
No number has digits more than 4. All of them are 1 , 2, 4, 8 , 16 , 32 , 64 converted to 
numbers in base 5.

10.   Shahrukh speaks truth only in the morning and lies in the afternoon, whereas 
Salman speaks truth only in the afternoon. A says that B is Shahrukh. Is it morning or 
afternoon and who is A - Shahrukh or Salman? 
Ans: Afternoon.  A is Salman.

Since A says that B is Shahruk, A can only be Salman and he speaks truth only in the afternoon.

            If A is Shahrukh then his saying B is Shahrukh is a lie. He lies in the afternoon.

11.   There are 6 volumes of books on a rack kept in order ( ie vol.1, vol. 2 and so on ). 
Give the position of the books after the following changes have been made. 
Vol. 5 was directly placed to the right of Vol. 2.  Vol. 4 has Vol. 6 to its left and both 
were not at Vol. 3's place. Vol. 1 has Vol. 3 on right and Vol. 5 on left. An even numbered 
volume is at Vol. 5's place Find the order in which the books are kept now. 
Ans: 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 4. 

12.   I bought a car with a peculiar 5 digit numbered licence plate which on reversing 
could still be read. On reversing value is increased by 78633.Whats the original number 
if all digits were different? 
Ans: 10968

Only 0 1 6 8 and 9 can be read upside down. So on rearranging these digits, we get 
the answer as 10968. 

13.   Two trains starting at same time, one from Bangalore to Mysore and other in 
opposite direction arrive at their destination 1 hour and 4 hours respectively after passing 
each other. How much faster is one train from other? 
Ans: Twice. 
Let ‘x’ be the distance between Bangalore & Mysore and let ’a’ be the distance from Bangalore to the meeting point.

Train 1 from BNG to MYS speed be S1.  Train 2 from MYS to BNG speed be S2.

Then we have -> a/S1 = x-a/S2 -> S1/S2 = a/x-a.

Train 1 takes 1 hour to travel (x-a) distance and Train 2 takes 4 hours to travel the distance ‘a’. So we have (x-a)/S1 = 1 hour and a/S2 = 4 hours. Substituting these values

We have S1/S2 = 4S2/S1 -> S1^2 = 4S2^2 Thus S1 : S2 = 1 : 2.

English Verbal - 10 (for Bank Exams)

English Verbal – 10 (for Bank Exams)

Question Nos (1 – 5) Identify the sentence that is grammatically correct in all respects

1.  (a)  I am not one of those who believe everything they hear.

     (b)  I am not one of these who believes everything I hear.

     (c)  I am not one of those who believes everything he hears.

     (d)  I am not one of those who believes in everything one hears.

Ans: ( a )

2.  (a)  Cannot one do what one likes with one’s own?

     (b)  Cannot one do that one likes to do with his own?

     (c)  Cannot one do that one likes with his own?

     (d)  Cannot one do what he likes with his own?

Ans: ( a )

3.  (a)  There’s Mr. Som, whom they say is the best singer in the country.

     (b)  There’s Mr. Som, who they say is the best singer in the country.

     (c)  There is Mr. Som, whom they say is the best singer in the country.

     (d)  There is Mr. Som who, they say is the best singer in the country.

Ans: ( b )

4.  (a) Each of the students has done well. 

     (b) Each of the student has done well.

     (c)  Each of the students have done well. 

     (d) Each of the student have done well.

Ans: ( a )

5.   (a) Today we love, what tomorrow we hate; today we seek, what tomorrow we shun,
            today we desire, what tomorrow we fear.

      (b) Today, we love what tomorrow we hate, today, we seek what tomorrow we shun,
            today, we desire what tomorrow we fear.

     (c)  Today we love what tomorrow we hate, today we seek what tomorrow we shun,
            today we desire what tomorrow we fear.

     (d)  Today we love what tomorrow we hate; today we seek what tomorrow we shun;
            today we desire what tomorrow we fear.  

Ans: ( d )  Look at the punctuations

Directions for Questions 6 to 8. In each question, the word given is used in four different ways, numbered (a) to (d). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

6. FALLOUT

  (a)  Nagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiation.

  (b)  People believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant.

  (c)  Who can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements?

   (d) The headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at
         the Public examination. 

Ans: ( d )

7. PASSING

  (a)  She did not have passing marks in mathematics

   (b)  The mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road.

   (c)  At the birthday party all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.

   (d)  A passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victim to the hospital 

Ans: ( a )

8. BOLT

   (a) The shopkeeper showed us a bolt of fine silk.

   (b) As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.

   (c) Could you please bolt the door?

   (d) The thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime.

 Ans: ( b )

Directions:  In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.

1.       It is written in Gita (a)/ that God incarnates (b)/ Himself (c)/ in times of trouble. (d)/ No error (e)

Ans: (a) Add ‘the’ before ‘Gita’.

       2.     It is being rainy day, (a)/ we decided not to go out (b)/ but to stay at home (c)/ and watch a
              movie. (d)/ No error (e)

                Ans: (a) Add ‘a’ before rainy day.

3.       The blinds (a)/ deserve (b)/ our sympathy. (c)/ No error (d)

Ans: (a) Replace ‘blind’ for ‘blinds’

       4.     Concurrent with his programme, (a)/ educational institutions may be urged (b)/ to inculcate
                patriotism (c)/ in each and every one of its pupils. (d) No error (e)

                Ans( d) Use ‘their’ in the place of ‘its’.

5.       She had shifted her residence (a)/ to this city to be (b)/ close with the child (c)/ she had wanted to adopt. (d)/ No error (e)

Ans: (c)  Replace ‘with’ by ‘to’

       6.     The author’s vision, (a)/ suffused by an innocence and warmth, (b)/ may not correspond (c)/ to the country as it is today. (d)/ No error (e)

                Ans: (b) Use ‘with’ instead of ‘by’

7.       And though one did not (a)/ quite believe his claim, (b)/ one saw no harm (c)/ in granting him permission. (d)/ No error (e)

Ans: (e)

8.       If you hate me, (a)/ then you should (b)/ leave my house. (c)/ No error (d)

Ans: (b)  delete ‘then’

9.     When he went out (a)/ he left the radio on (b)/ so that his parents shall think (c)/ that he was still in the house. (d)/ No error (e)

                Ans: (e)

10.    More leisure, as well as an abundance of goods, (a)/ are attainable (b)/ through automation. (c)/ No error (d)

Ans: (b)  Use ‘is’ instead of ‘are’.

General Awareness Questions for Bank Exams - 3

GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS - 3

1. As we all know rise of the 'BRICS' has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) of ‘Rise of the BRICS’ on global/other powerful economy/economies?

(A) Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.

(B) It has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.

(C) EURO has become a powerful currency and many non- Euro countries are in 'Swap Agreement' with various nations.

(a) Only A            (b) Only B            (c) Only C             (d) All A, B & C                   (e) None of these

Ans: (d)

2. The Government of India has launched a new scheme for the 'Girl Child'. What is the name of the scheme?

(a) Raj Lakshmi                  (b) Rani Bitia       (c) Dhanlaxmi    (d) Aanandita    (e) None of these

Ans: (c)

3. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would now be:

(a) 21                     (b) 25                    (c) 26                     (d) 30                    (e) 31

Ans: (e)

4. As, per the reports published in - the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating agencies in India?

(A) CARE              (B) CRISIL             (C) ULIP

(a) Only A            (b) Only B            (c) A & B only     (d) Only C            (5) All A, B & C

Ans: (c)

5. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introduce "Plastic Currency Notes". What is/are the benefits of "Plastic Notes"?

(A) Their Shelf life will be longer.              (B) It will replace plastic money or Credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fraudulent practices.      (C) Printing will be cheaper.

(a) Only C            (b) Only B            (c) Only A            (d) All A, B & C   (e) None of these

Ans: (c)

6. 'Sub Prime Lending' is a term applied to the loans made to

(a) those borrowers who do not have a good credit history.

(b) those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets.

(c) those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10'years.

(d) those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank.

(e) None of these

Ans: (d)

7. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the "small borrowers" in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the following is the "informal route" of credit in financial sector?

(a) Credit cards                                 (b) Loan against gold from financial institutions (c) Debit cards

(d) Moneylender             (e) None of these

Ans: (d)

8. Basel-II norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry?

(a) Risk management     (b) Manpower planning                                (c) Retirement benefits for the employees (d) Corporate Governance       (e) None of these

Ans: (a)

9. What is meant by "Underwriting" the term frequently used in financial sector?

(a) Undervaluation of the assets              

(b) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee  

(c) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan    

(d) The act of permission to float an IPO               

(e) None of these

Ans: (c)

10. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected as the Chairperson of the US-India Business Council is the CEO of which of the following Companies?

(a) Pepsi Co.       (b) Infosys          (c) Tata Consultancy Services      (d) NUT                (e) None of these

Ans: (a)

11. As per the news published in some newspapers magazines two PSUs National Thermal Power Corporation and Coal India Ltd. are going to float a joint venture 'SPV. What is the full form of "SPV" ?

(a) Small Power Venture

(b) Special Purpose Vehicle

(c) Special Power Venture

(d) Small Purpose Vehicle

(e) None of these

Ans: (b)

12. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious types of winds which bring lot of disaster?

(a) Trade winds                                 (b) Hurricane     (c) Cirrus              (d) Stratus           (e) None of these

Ans: (b)

13. As we have noticed many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace?

(A) These Banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation.

(B) These banks wish to help Indian firms, to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates.

(C) These banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and other countries.

(a) Only A            (b) Only B            (c) Only C             (d) All A, B & C   (e) Only B & C

Ans: (e)

14. Which of the following is NOT a banking/finance related term?

(a) Credit wrap    (b) EMI              (c) Held to Maturity        (d) Exposure limit     (e) Diffusion

Ans: (e)

15. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to WTO negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different opinions?

(A) Providing Subsidy to agriculture.

(B) Export of patented drugs/ medicines by developed nations.

(C) Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other.

(a) Only A            (b) Only B            (c) Only C             (d) Both A & C   (e) None of these

Ans: (a)

English Verbal - 9

English – Verbal for Bank Exams

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Financial Inclusion (FI) is an emerging priority for banks that have nowhere else to go to achieve business growth. The viability of FI business is under question, because while banks and their delivery partners continue to make investments, they haven’t seen commensurate returns. In markets like India, most programs are focused on customer on-boarding, an expensive process which people often find difficult to afford, involving issuance of smart cards to the customers. However, large scale customer acquisition hasn’t translated into large scale customer acquisition hasn’t translated into large scale business, with many accounts lying dormant and therefore yielding no return on the bank’s investment. For the same reason, Business Correspondent Agents who constitute the primary channel for financial inclusion are unable to pursue their activity as a full-time job. One major reason for this state of events is that the customer on-boarding process is often delayed after the submission of documents (required to validate the details of the concerned applicant) by the applicant and might take as long as two weeks. By this time the initial enthusiasm of applicants fade away. Moreover, the delivery partners don’t have the knowledge and skill to propose anything other than the most basic financial products to the customer and hence do not serve their banks’ goal of expanding the offering in unbanked markets.

Contrary to popular perception, the inclusion segment is not a singular impoverished, undifferentiated mass and it is important to navigate its diversity to identify the right target customers for various programs. Rural markets do have their share of rich people who do not use banking services simply because they are inconvenient to access or have low perceived value. At the same time, urban markets, despite a high branch density, have multitude of low wage earners outside the financial net. Moreover, the branch timing of banks rarely coincides with the off-work hours of the labour class.

Creating affordability is crucial in tapping the unbanked market. No doubt pricing is a tool, but banks also need to convince customers that they can derive big value even from small amounts. One way of doing this is to show the target audience that a bank account is actually a lifestyle enabler, a convenient and safe means to send money to family or make a variety of purchases. Once banks succeed in hooking customers with this value proposition they must sustain their interest by introducing a simple and intuitive use application, ubiquitous access over mobile and other touch points, and adopting a banking mechanism which is not only secure but also reassuring to the customer. Technology is the most important element of financial inclusion strategy and an enabler of all others. The choice of technology is therefore a crucial decision, which could make or mar the agenda. Of the various selection criteria, cost is perhaps the most important. This certainly does not mean buying the cheapest package, but rather choosing that solution which by scaling transactions to huge volumes reduces per unit operating cost. An optimal mix of these strategies cost would no doubt offer an innovative means of expansion in the unbanked market.

1. Which of the following facts is true as per the passage?

(1) People from rural areas have high perceived value of banking services
(2) Cost is not a valid criterion for technological package selection for financial inclusion initiatives
(3) The inclusion segment is a singular impoverished, undifferentiated mass
(4) The branch timings of banks generally do not coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class in urban markets
(5) All the given statements are true

Ans: (4)

2. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons do the delivery partners fail to serve their bank’s goal to expand in the unbanked markets?

(a) They do not have adequate client base to sell their financial products
(b) They do not have adequate knowledge and skills to explain anything beyond basic financial products to the customers
(c) They do not have the skills to operate advanced technological aids that are a prerequisite to tap the unbanked market

(1) Only (b)

(2) Only (c)
(3) All (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Only (a)
(5) Both (b) and (c)

Ans: (1)

3. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons is the viability of financial inclusion under question?

(1) The banks always prefer the cheapest package (to cut cost) while making a choice of technology to be used
(2) The Business Correspondent Agents are highly demotivated to pursue their activity as a full-time job
(3) The investments made by banks and its delivery partners are not yielding equal amount of returns
(4) The banks do not have adequate number of delivery partners required to tap the unbanked market
(5) The banks do not have adequate manpower to explore the diversity of the unbanked market and thereby identify the right target customers for various programs

Ans: (3)

4. In the passage, which has specified the following characteristics of the customer on-boarding process?

(1) In involves collection of documents from the applicants in order to validate their details
(2) In involved issuance of smart cards to the customers
(3) If suffers from latency as it takes a long time after submission of documents by the customer
(4) It is an expensive process which people find difficult to afford
(5) All of the above given characteristics have been specified

Ans: (5)

5. What did the author try to highlight in the passage?

(a) The ailing condition of financial inclusion business at present
(b) Strategies that may help bank to expand in the unbanked market
(c) Role of government in modifying the existing financial inclusion policies

(1) Both (a) and (b)
(2) All (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (c)

(4) Only (a)
(5) Only (b)

Ans: (1)

6. According to the passage, which of the following ways may help banks to sustain the interest of their customers after hooking them?

(a) Adoption of a banking machinist which is not only secure but reassuring to the customers
(b) Increasing the number of delivery partners in rural market
(c) Introduction of a simple and intuitive user application

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (c)
(3) Only (b)

(4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(5) Both (a) and (c)

Ans: (5)

Directions: Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

7. Multitude

(1) Impoverished            

(2) Handful        

(3) Acknowledged          

(4) Plenty
(5) Solitude

Ans: (4)

8. Ubiquitous

(1) Quintessential
(2) Popular
(3) Omnipresent
(4) Simplified
(5) Abnormal

Ans: (3)

Directions: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. Dormant

(1) Emaciated

(2) Pertinent
(3) Cornered

(4) Rejected
(5) Active

Ans: (5)

10. Delayed

(1) Perturbed

(2) Popularized
(3) Expedited

(4) Stablised
(5) Repressed

Ans: (3)

Directions: Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) The group desired to enhance the learning experience in schools with an interactive digital medium that could be used within and outside the class-room.

(B) Then the teacher can act on the downloaded data rather than collect it from each and every student and thereby save his time and effort.

(C) Edutor decided the group of engineers, all alumni of the Indian Institute of technology, when they founded Edutor Technologies in August 2009.

(D) They can even take tests and submit them digitally using the same tablets and the teachers in turn can download the tests using the company’s cloud services.

(E) With this desire created a solution that digitizes school textbooks and other learning material so that students no longer has to carry as many books to school and back as before, but can access their study material on their touch-screen tablets.

(F) A mechanic works on motors and an accountant has his computer. Likewise, if a student has to work on a machine or device, what should it be called?

11. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after arrangement?

(1) F       (2) D      (3) A      (4) C       (5) E

Ans: (1)

12. Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD after arrangement?

(1) A      (2) B       (3) D      (4) D      (5) F

Ans: (1)

13. Which of the following sentences should be the SIXTH (LAST) after arrangement?

(1) A      (2) F       ( 3) E      (4) B       (5) D

Ans: (4)

14. Which of the following sentences should be the FOURTH after arrangement?

(1) A      (2) F       (3) E       (4) B       (5) C

Ans: (3)

15. Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after arrangement?

(1) A      (2) D      (3) C       (4) E       (5) F

Ans: (2)

English - Verbal

English - Verbal

The meaning of some selected words in English.

1.       Affliction - distress, suffering

2.       Docile - easily trained or controlled

3.       Efface - rub or wipe out, obliterate

4.       Elucidate - to make understandable

5.       Enthral - take the whole attention, enslave

6.       Petulant - unreasonably impatient or irritable

7.       Quenching - satisfy, put an end to, put out

8.       Reticent - in the habit of saying little

9.       Tantalize - raise hopes that cannot be realized

10.   Taciturn - unspoken, silent

Passage

Nearly forty years ago, former President Kennedy signed the National Reproductive Policy Act, this nation's first major federal law addressing federal reproductive freedom. Although the nation has now witnessed almost forty years of continuing debate (5) about abortion freedom law, a relatively new element has recently entered the controversy: the use of partial birth procedures and their high risks in facilitating voluntary third trimester pregnancy terminations.

(10) Before the development of techniques to facilitate partial birth abortions, when an unwanted pregnancy occurred, a government agency often simply told a patient she could only abort during the first trimester. Doctors performing the procedures often relied on visual observations to determine compliance with the legal time limits. (15) Most reproductive freedom professionals consider flexible legal guidelines an improvement over pre-1960 restrictions because it provides a factual and scientific basis for the abortion methodology rather than an intuitive or emotional basis. Accordingly, many reproductive freedom professionals regard formal abortion laws (20) to be neutral policy tools that can be employed by the government to make sound policy judgments that assure efficient and appropriate procedures.

But are abortion laws and their proponents really neutral political (25) issues? Analysis of the choices that must be made in reproductive issues makes the answer clear. Because pregnancy termination depends on choices for which there is no a priori legal method of deciding from among available assumptions, decisions ultimately depends largely, if not predominantly, on values (30) positions rather than on legal precedent . Laws must now govern partial birth abortion methodology for women's health, including a determination of whether the procedure will cause an adverse health effect; dose-response assessment of drugs, an analysis of the relationship between an administered dose and the incidence of (35) the adverse health effect; exposure assessment, an analysis of the processes and pathways by which contact with a labour-inducement drug creates opportunity for exposure; and risk characterization, the process of identifying the incidence of adverse health effects under various clinical conditions-requires the application (40) of some judgment that must ultimately rely on some- thing less than legally-proven principles. Indeed, many of the choices that must be made in completing a risk assessment must be viewed as pure values judgments. For example, in the hazard identification portion of an assessment, the decision (45) on picking a confidence level to determine statistically whether there has been a positive determination of whether a labour-inducement drug is a hazard is a pure values judgment.

Decisions on reproductive freedom based on current risk assessment (50) procedures should therefore be viewed primarily as ethical choices rather than as technically dictated conclusions. It is important in an age of increasing scientific complexity that interested parties attempt to understand the values positions and ethical issues that underlie legally derived policy (55) choices. Government must bring greater clarity to the debate about reproductive freedom through identification of the embedded values positions and issues in therapeutic abortion procedures.

1. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?

(A) Therapeutic abortion is an improvement over past methods because it is based more on factual evidence than on intuition.
(B) Former President Kennedy did more than his predecessors to protect the reproductive freedom of women by approving the use of first trimester abortion.
(C) Though perhaps more radical than previous birth control measures, partial birth abortion is a value-free process.
(D) While the concept of partial birth abortion is enticing from a scientific viewpoint, this method is so expensive that its use is impractical on a large scale.
(E) Since past abortion procedures were effective in the first trimester, the government should not have approved further restrictions on its use or implementation.

Ans: Choice C correctly and elegantly sums up the author's scepticism. Choice A contradicts the author's view, while B violates the actual timeline of events. Choice D totally misses the ethical question, while E goes too far.

2. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as part of the adverse health effects EXCEPT

(A) visual observation
(B) exposure assessment
(C) analysis of labour-inducement drugs
(D) risk characterization

(E) dose-response assessment

 Ans: Choice A is correct. All other components appear explicitly in the four wrong choices.

3. The author most probably mentions "confidence level" (line 45) in order to

(A) demonstrate that partial birth procedures are safer than past abortion methods
(B) question the accuracy of physician's clinical observations
(C) suggest that government should eliminate ambiguities in its reproductive freedom agenda
(D) show that non legal principles can affect subsequent legal decisions
(E) strengthen the notion that the National Reproductive Policy Act needs to be modified

Ans: Choice D is correct. Choices A and B refer to earlier efforts, while C comes at the very end of the passage. E has no connection with either risk assessment or the line in question.

4. The author suggests which one of the following about abortion methods that predated the development of the partial birth procedure?

(A) They are considered to be completely ineffective in protecting women's health.
(B) President Kennedy's National Reproductive Policy Act was based on their success.
(C) Many reproductive freedom professionals are not satisfied with the results produced by these methods.
(D) They are often difficult to apply because they depend on precise time limitations.
(E) The best features of these methods should be integrated into the partial birth process.

Ans: Choice C is easily inferable from the passage. Choice A goes too far, while B and E aren't supported by the passage. Choice D is simply incorrect.

5. Which of the following words, as it appears in the passage, best supports the author's view of the role of non-legal components in the risk assessment process?

(A) improvement (line 16)
(B) neutral (line 20)
(C) adverse (line 35)
(D) opportunity (line 38)
(E)  underlie (line 54)

Ans: Choice E best captures the main idea. Choices A and B are not improvements, while D is too positive. Choice C is tempting, but does not capture the idea as well as

6. The passage's reference to the "factual and scientific basis" of abortion rights process in line 17 serves which of the following functions?

(A) It explains the government's unwillingness to choose between older methods and the assessment of newer ones.
(B) It outlines the differences among reproductive freedomists over the practicality of visual observation techniques.
(C) It underscores the belief of reproductive freedomists that risk assessment is a useful method for evaluating new procedures.
(D) It introduces birth control policy choices for which there is no a priori assessment method.
(E) It highlights the attitude of reproductive freedomists toward the National Reproductive Policy Act.

Ans: Choice C is correct. Choice A is not mentioned in the passage, while B refers to a topic on which the passage's reproductive freedomists are undivided. Choices D and E come at incorrect points in the passage to make sense.

7. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(A) comparing risk assessment of new procedures with earlier abortion methods
(B) explaining why government should make explicit the ethical choices involved in reproductive freedom choices
(C) highlighting government's inability to deal effectively with reproductive freedom issues
(D) reviewing the evolution of abortion methods over the past two decades
(E) proposing a new method for reproductive freedom that incorporates the best features of risk assessment

Ans: Choice B well captures the overall concept of the passage. Choice A pushes too far, while C, D and E all miss the heart of the passage.

Dell International - Verbal

Dell International – Verbal

In the following questions fill in the blanks with appropriate choice answers to make it grammatically correct.

1.       There can be no arguing against a ___________ of mass public _________ and distribution of medicines, as in the UK.
a) trend,  awareness

b) notion,  welfare
c) phenomenon,  acceptance 
d) system,  procurement
e) backdrop,  campaign

Ans: (d)

2.       The government should ________ with the industry about what would be a _________ price for certain essential drugs.
a) negotiate, reasonable 
b) deal, transparent
c) appeal, negotiable 
d) raise, genuine
e) refrain, uniform

Ans: (a)

3.       Malnourishment of Indian children is mostly due to traditional taboos __________ with certain vital foods, and not due to their _____________.
a) containing, unavailability 
b) embraced, locality
c) associated, scarcity 
d) raised, nutrition
e) inserted, quality

Ans: (c)

4.       During his mandate, the secretary-general will face the _________ challenge of ________ a global agreement on climate change.
a) grave, drawing 
b) pressing, forging
c) massive, framing 
d) umpteen, sentencing
e) detrimental, inking

Ans: (b)

5.       The key for today's UN is not to _______ more goals, but to ________ those that have been set before.
a) bargain, offload 
b) address, justify
c) superseded, avail 
d) amen, respond
e) create, implement

Ans: (e)

In the following questions please choose the right option from among the choices.

6.       What was the role of the farmers who gave their lands for field testing of Genetically Engineered (GE) rice in Karnal?
a) They gave their lands for the testing against heavy rental.
b) They were in support of such a high-yield variety of the crop.
c) They were ignorant the consequence of such a trial.
d) They were in search of some experimentation in rice production.
e) None of these

Ans: (b)

7.       What keeps India in a commanding position in rice export to various foreign countries?

a) Indian varieties of rice are considered to be in natural and pure form.
b) India has cheaper varieties of rice compared to other countries.
c) India has surplus rice production every year.
d) India has gained numero-uno,  position in terms of quality and variety of rice.
e) None of these

Ans: (c)

8.       What could be a major consequence if cultivation of GE rice is allowed in India?
a) It will give the foreign countries an easy entry into our agriculture sector.
b) It will open the path for research and experimentation in the field of agriculture.
c) It will increase the profit margins of our farmers.
d) It will make our country depending on foreign technology.
e) None of these

Ans: (a)

9.       What should we do to maintain the natural gene pool of rice in our country?
a) We should not open our agriculture sector to the forces of globalization.
b) We should protect it from being mixed with other breeds and genes.
c) We should revise our policy of export of food grains.
d) We should complete with the genetically-engineered rice produced in foreign countries.
e) None of these

Ans: (b)

10.   Which of the following seems to be 'true' in the context?
a) Mexico has banned the cultivation of GE rice.
b) India has maintained its natural gene pool of corn so far.
c) GE rice has made its firm ground in our country.
d) GE crops can pose health hazards to mankind.
e) None of these

Ans: (e)

11.   Which of the following seems to be 'false' in the context?
a) Cross-pollination is not possible in the case of rice.
b) Mexico has taken measures against GE corn.
c) Introduction of GE rice is facing resistance in our country.
d) GE crops are unsafe for human consumption.
e) None of these

Ans: (d)

12.   What do you mean by gene-silencing in a crop?
a) Gene silencing in a crop is a technique in which different varieties of a crop grown together.
b) Gene silencing is a scientific term which is applied to boost the yield of a crop.
c) In gene silencing method the application of foreign gene to any variety of crop increase its yield.
d) The introduction of alien gene to a crop makes its natural gene dysfunction.
e) None of these

Ans: (d)

13.   What message is derived from all the above?
a) Save agriculture from the onslaught of globalization
b) Protect the original variety of rice
c) Ban the import of foreign food grains
d) Say no to scientific experiment in agriculture
e) None of these

Ans: (a)