Critical Reasoning Questions

Critical Reasoning Questions

Directions for 1-5: In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments a ‘strong’ argument is and which a ‘weak’ argument is. Give answer:
1	If only argument I is strong.
2	If only argument II is strong.
3	If either I or II is strong.
4	If neither I nor II is strong.
5	If both I and II are strong.

1)

Should there be no restriction on use of pesticides in the agricultural/horticultural fields? Arguments:

i

Yes, otherwise the crops will get damaged due to attack of pests.

ii

No, indiscriminate use of pesticide will contaminate the crop which is a health hazard.

Ans:

2

2)

Should there be a directive from government to the farmers as regards choice of crop on their land depending upon the soil quality and other relevant factors? Arguments:

I

No, the farmers are capable of judging and it should be left to them to choose the crop to be cultivated on their land.

ii

Yes, this will maximize the output as the government machinery can provide lot of input based on the scientific data available.

Ans:

5

3)     Should the government set up weather forecasting centers in each                 district of the country to provide data-based information to the                       farmers?             Arguments:

i

No, the government does not have adequate resources to set up such centers.

ii

No, the villagers have enough experience to understand the weather conditions.

Ans:

4

4.    Should the government of India allow farmers to cultivate Bt Cotton?       Arguments:

i

No, Bt Cotton is found to have harmful effects on human being.

ii

Yes, many western countries have allowed their farmers to do so. Ans:   1

5)

Should the government immediately withdraw subsidy on fertilizers bought by the rich farmers? Arguments:

i

Yes, the rich farmers can afford to buy the fertilizers at market rate as they make considerable profit.

ii

No, the procurement price fixed by the government is low and hence the subsidy at the present level should continue.

Ans:

3

Directions for 6-10: Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer:
1	If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
2	If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
3	If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
4	If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
5	If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

6)	(A) The local co-operative credit society has decided to stop giving loans to farmers with immediate effect. (B) A large number of credit society members have withdrawn major part of their deposits from the credit society.
	Ans:	5
7)	(A) There is sharp decline in the production of oil seeds this year.
	(B) The government has decided to increase the import quantum of edible oil.
	Ans:	1
8)	(A) The local farmers approached the NGO seeking advice to protest against the proposed steel plant in the locality.
	(B) The drought situation has worsened for the third consecutive year in the area forcing the local farmers to resort to huge borrowings.
	Ans:	4
9)	(A) The local Self Help Group has done a commendable job in improving the quality of life of the poor.
	(B) The rich people in the area have come together and started negative campaign against the Self Help Group.

                Ans:  3

10)	(A) All those farmers who are affected by the construction of the thermal power project have decided not to allow the plant to function.
	(B) Majority stakeholders in the thermal power project have decided to go ahead and run the plant.

                      Ans:  5

Directions for 11-15: In each question below are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
	11)		Statements: Some sweets are almonds. Some almonds are cashews. All cashews are pistachio. Conclusions:
			i	All almonds are pistachio.
			ii	Some pistachios are sweets.
			iii	Some sweets are cashews.
			iv	All almonds are either sweets or cashews.
			1	None follows
			2	Only II and III follow
			3	Only IV follows
			4	Only either I or IV follows
			5	None of these                                  Ans: 5
	12)	Statements: Some stones are pearls. All pearls are jewelry. All jewelries are diamonds. Conclusions:
		i			Some stones are diamonds.
		ii			All pearls are diamonds.
		iii			Some jewelries are stones.
		iv			Some diamonds are pearls.
		1			Only I, II and III follow
		2			Only III and IV follow
		3			Only I and II follow
		4			Only II, III and IV follow
		5			All follow
		Ans:			3
	13)	Statements: Some fruits are seeds. All seeds are trees. All plants are trees. Conclusions:
		i			Some plants are seeds.
		ii			Some plants are fruits.
		iii			Some trees are fruits.
		iv			No plant is a seed.
		1			Only III follows
		2			Only III and either I or IV follow
		3			Only II and either I or IV follow
		4			Only I and IV follow
		5			None of these
		Ans:			2
	14)	Statements: All keys are locks. All locks are latches. All latches are safes. Conclusions:
		i			All keys are latches.
		ii			All locks are safes.
		iii			All safes are latches.
		iv			All locks are keys.
		1			Only I and III follow
		2			Only II and III follow
		3			Only I and II follow
		4			Only III and IV follow
		5			All follow
		Ans:			3
	15)	Statements: Some rocks are bricks. Some bricks are sands. No sand is cement. Conclusions:
		i			Some rocks are cements.
		ii			Some rocks are sands.
		iii			Some sands are bricks.
		iv			No brick is cement.
		1			None follows
		2			Only I and II follow
		3			Only I and III follow
		4			Only II and III follow
		5			None of these
		Ans:			5

General Awareness Questions for Bank Exams - 3

General Awareness Questions for Bank Exams - 3

1.    What is 'Zero Hour'?
(a)    When the proposals of the opposition are considered
(b)    When matters of utmost importance are raised               
(c)    Interval between the morning and afternoon session
(d)    When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok-Sabha

Ans: (b)

2.    When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker continues in office till a new
(a)    Lok Sabha is formed
(b)    Speaker is appointed by the president
(c)    Speaker is elected when the new House meets      
(d)    Government is formed
Ans: (c)

3.    The first no confidence motion was moved in the Lok Sabha after independence in the year
(a)    1954
(b)    1960
(c)    1963     
(d)    1975

Ans: (c)

4.    The preamble includes all of the following except
(a)    Fraternity
(b)    Adult franchise      
(c)    Justice
(d)    Equality of status
Ans: (b)

5.    Free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14 years has been envisaged in the Constitution under its Article No
(a)    14
(b)    19
(c)    32
(d)    21(A)     

Ans: (d)

6.    In the Constitution, there is a reference to the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform, in the
(a)    Preamble
(b)    Fundamental right
(c)    Fundamental duties     
(d)    Directive principles

Ans: (c)

7.    The part of the Constitution that deals with the directive principle of state policy is part
(a)    II
(b)    III
(c)    IV     
(d)    V

Ans: (c)

8.    The Constitution confers special responsibility for the enforcement of fundamental rights on the
(a)    State legislature
(b)    President
(c)    Supreme Court     
(d)    Parliament

Ans: (c)

9.    When was Windows 8 released by Microsoft ?
(a)    October 26 2012     
(b)    January 1st 2012
(c)    August 10th 2012
(d)    March 23rd 2013

Ans: (a)

10.    Who is the first Indian Defence Minister to visit Saudi Arabia
(a)    A.K. Antony     
(b)    George Fernandez
(c)    V. R. Krishnayyar
(d)    Beldev

Ans: (a)

11.    Find out the wrongly spelt word
(a)    Moustache
(b)    hipcrasy     
(c)    omission
(d)    maitre

Ans: (b)

12.    'Chaos' means
(a)    Paradise
(b)    Complete disorder or confusion      
(c)    busy
(d)    solutide

Ans: (b)

13.    Few people knew the answer ?
(a)    didn't they
(b)    did they     
(c)    don't they
(d)    will they

Ans: (b)

14.    The children were warned --------
(a)     to commit the mistake
(b)    for committing the mistake
(c)    Against committing the mistake     
(d)    with committing the mistake

Ans: (c)

Direction (15-16) chose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold

15.    EMERGING
(a)    Satisfied
(b)    profiting
(c)    Modern
(d)    dull     

Ans: (D)

16.    REVERSE
(a)    Remove
(b)    destroy
(c)    motivate
(d)    establish     

Ans: (D)

Direction (17-18) choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word/of words printed in bold
17.    CENTRED ON
(a)    Gets boost
(b)    revolves around
(c)    inspired from        
(d)    thrives on
Ans: (c)

18.    MITIGATE
(a)    Migrate
(b)    take off
(c)    out
(d)    reduce     

Ans: (D)

Direction (19 – 20) Fill the blank with the appropriate choice word

19.    The jailer saw------the prisoner's scheme
(a)    to
(b)    through     
(c)    about
(d)    into

Ans: (b)

20.    His company is greatly so sought ------
(a)    for
(b)    at
(c)    after     
(d)    out

Ans; (c)

English Verbal - 11 (for Bank Exams)

English Verbal – 11 ( for Bank Exams)

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The evolution of Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) trend has been as profound as it has been rapid. It represents the more visible sign that the boundaries between personal life and work life are blurring. The 9am – 5pm model of working solely from office has become archaic and increasingly people are working extended hours from a range of locations. At the very heart of this evolution is the ability to access enterprise networks from anywhere and anytime. The concept of cloud computing serves effectively to extend the office out of office. The much heralded benefit of BYOD is greater productivity. However, recent research has suggested that this is the greatest myth of BYOD and the reality is that BYOD in practice poses new challenges that may outweigh the benefits. A worldwide survey commissioned by Fortieth chose to look at attitudes towards BYOD and security from the users’ point of view instead of the IT managers. Specifically the survey was conducted in 15 territories on groups of graduate employees in the early twenties because they represent the first generation to enter the workplace with an expectation of own device use. Moreover, they also represent tomorrow’s influences and decision makers. The survey findings reveal that for financial organizations, the decision to embrace BYOD is extremely dangerous. Larger organisations will have mature IT strategies and policies in place. But what about smaller financial business? They might not have such well-developed strategies to protect confidential data.

Crucially, within younger employee group, 55% of the people share an expectation that they should be allowed to use their own devices in workplace or for work purposes. With this expectation comes the very real risk that employees may consider contravening company policy banning the use of own devices. The threats posed by this level of subversion cannot be overstated. The survey casts doubt on the idea of BYOD leading to greater productivity by revealing the real reason people want to use their own devices. Only 26% of people in this age group cite efficiency as the reason they want to use their own devices, while 63% admit that the main reason is so they have access to their favourite applications. But with personal applications so close to hand, the risks to the business must surely include distraction and time wasting. To support this assumption 46% people polled acknowledged time wasting as the greatest threat to the organisation, while 42% citing greater exposure to theft or loss of confidential data. Clearly, from a user perspective there is great deal of contradiction surrounding BOYD and there exists an undercurrent of selfishness where users expect to use their own devices, but mostly for personal interest. They recognize the risks to the organisation but are adamant that hose risks are worth taking.

1. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons did Fortieth conduct the survey of a groups of graduate employees in their early twenties?

(a) As this group represents the future decision makers
(b) As this group represents the first generation who entered the workforce with a better understanding of sophisticated gadgets
(c) As this group represents the first generation to enter the workplace expecting that they can use their own device for work purpose

(1) All (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Only (c)

(3) Both (a) and (c)
(4) Only (a)

(5) Only (b)

Ans: (3)

2. Which of the following is not true about BOYD?

(1) BOYD enables employees to access enterprise network from anywhere and anytime
(2) Due to evolution of BOYD trend the 9am – 5 pm model of working solely from office has become outdated
(3) Recent research has confirmed that BOYD boosts organizational productivity
(4) The concept of cloud computing facilitates the BOYD trend
(5) All the given facts are true

Ans: (3)

3. According to the passage, why would the decision to embrace BYOD prove dangerous to smaller financial businesses?

(1) Their employees have poor knowledge about their devices which in turn pose a threat to the confidential data of the organisation
(2) The employees are more vulnerable to misplacement of device
(3) They may lack mature IT strategies and policies required to protect confidential data
(4) They cannot afford to deal with damage liability issues of employee-owned devices
(5) Their employees have a tendency to change jobs frequently

Ans: (3)

4. According to the passage, the expectation of younger employees that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace, entails which of the following risks?

(a) Younger employees may deliberately transfer confidential data of their companies to rivals if they are not allowed to use their own devices for work purpose.
(b) Younger employees may strongly feel like leaving the company if it prevents usages of own device and join some other company that does not have such stringent policies
(c) Younger employees may consider flouting company policy prohibiting usage of their own devices in the workplace other than for work purposes

(1) Only (c)

(2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (c)
(4) Only (a)
(5) All (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (1)

5. According to the findings of the survey conducted by Fortinet, why do majority of employees prefer using their own devices for work purpose?

(1) As they often find that the devices provided by the company lack quality
(2) As they have access to their favourite applications while working
(3) As majority of them believe that output doubles when they use their own devices for work purpose
(4) As handling data from their own devices reinforces their sense of responsibility
(5) As it helps them create a brand of their own

Ans: (2)

6. What is/are the author’s main objective (s) in writing the passage?

(a) To break the myth that BOYD promotes employee efficiency and organizational productivity
(b) To suggest ways to control subversion across levels of corporate chain of command
(c) To throw light upon the fact that employees even after knowing the risks involved, prefer to use their own device for work purpose mostly for personal benefits

(1) Both (a) and (c)
(2) All (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (c)
(4) Only (a)
(5) Only (b)

Ans: (1)

Directions: Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

7. Heralded

(1) Suspected

(2) Publicized
(3) Dragged

(4) Objective
(5) Benefit

Ans: (2)

8. Outweigh

(1) Control

(2) Venture
(3) Perish

(4) Determine
(5) Surpass

Ans: (5)

Directions: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. Embrace

(1) Contradict

(2) Disobey
(3) Curtail

(4) Reject
(5) Obscure

Ans: (4)

10. Subversion

(1) Compliance

(2) Sanity
(3) Popularity

(4) Destabilization
(5) Clarity

Ans: (1)

Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark (5).

11. There cannot be any situation where (1)/ somebody makes money in an asset (2)/ located in India and does not pay tax (3)/ either to India or to the country of this origin.(4) /  No error (5)

Ans: (2)   Use ‘on’ in the place of ‘in’

12. India has entered a downward spiral (1)/ an aggressive monetary tightening policy (2)/ and law abide sectors are subject to (3)/ savage amounts amount of multiple taxes. (4)/  No error (5)

Ans: (3) ’abiding’ in the place of ‘abide’

13. The bank may have followed (1)/ an aggressive monetary tightening policy (2) / but its stated aim of (3) / curbing inflation have not been achieved. (4) / No error (5)

Ans: (4) Use ‘has’ instead of ‘have’

14. Equal opportunities for advancement (1)/ across the length and breadth (2)/ of an organisation will (3)/ keep many problems away. (4)/ No error (5)

Ans: (4) substitute ‘most’ for ‘many’

15. A customized data science degree (1)/ is yet to become (2)/ a standard programme (3)/ to India’s premier educational institutes. (4) / No error (5)

Ans: (4) Use ‘in’ in place of ‘to’

Directions: Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. When you want to digitalise a city ______ with millions, you don’t bet _____ the odds.

(1) proceeding, into
(2) teeming, against
(3) undergoing, adhere
(4) dangling, for
(5) falling, above

Ans: (2)

17. The numbers ________ by the legitimate online music service providers indicate that a growing number of users are _______ to buy music.

(1) morphed, ignoring
(2) labeled, thriving
(3) figured, fanatic
(4) painted, interested
(5) touted, willing

Ans: (5)

18. If India is _________ on protecting its resources, international business appears equally ______ to safeguard its profit.

(1) dreaded, fragile
(2) stubborn, weak
(3) bent, determined
(4) approaching settled
(5) observed, prepared

Ans: (3)

19. Brands ________ simple strategies make full use of available information to ______ consumers’ path of decision making and direct them to the best market offers.

(1) diluting, divulge
(2) tempting, maintain
(3) imputing, overdrive
(4) pursuing, assess
(5) employing, trust

Ans: (4)

20. Lack of financing options, ________ with HR and technological _______, make small and medium enterprises sectors the most vulnerable component of our economy.

(1) except, loophole
(2) coupled, challenges
(3) armed, benefits
(4) registered, strategies
(5) strengthened, facilities

 Ans: (2)

TCS - Recent Questions - 2

TCS – Recent Questions - 2

1.        A student's average (arithmetic mean) test score on 4 tests is 78. What must be the students score on a 5th test for the student’s average score on the 5th test to be 80?

Ans: 88

Average of four tests -> 78.  Total of 4 tests -> 78 x 4 -> 312.

Average of five tests ->  80.  Total of 5 tests->  80 x 5 -> 400

Hence, the student should score 400 – 312 = 88 marks in the fifth test.

2.            Rural households have more purchasing power than the urban households at the same income level, since some of the income urban and suburban households use for food and shelter can be used by the rural households for other needs. Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made above?

(A) The average rural household includes more people than does the average urban or suburban household.

(B) Rural households have lower food and housing costs than do either urban or suburban households.

(C) Suburban households generally have more purchasing power than do either rural or urban households.

(D) The median income of urban and suburban households is generally higher than that of rural households.

(E) All three types of households spend more of their income on housing than on all other purchases combined.

                Ans: (B)

3.       Jose is a student of horticulture in the University of Hose. In a horticultural experiment in his final year, 200 seeds were planted in plot I and 300 were planted in plot II. If 57% of the seeds in plot I germinated and 42% of the seeds in plot II germinated, what percent of the total number of planted seeds germinated?

Ans: 48%

Plot 1 --- 57% out of 200 seeds germinated -> 114 seeds germinated.

Plot 2 --- 42% out of 300 seeds germinated -> 126 seeds germinated.

Thus totally 114 + 126 -> 240 seeds out of total 500 seeds germinated.

Hence the percentage is 240 * 100/500 -> 48%

4.       A closed cylindrical tank contains 36 pie cubic feet of water and it is filled to half its capacity. When the tank is placed upright on its circular base on level ground, the height of water in the tank is 4 feet. When the tank is placed on its side on level ground, what is the height, in feet, of the surface of the water above the ground?

Ans: 3 feet.

It should be noted that since the cylindrical tank is half filled to its capacity, when placed on its side also it will be filled to half its capacity.

Volume of the water in the cylinder in upright position is (pir²h). This is equal to 36pi.

Thus we have an equation pir²h = 36pi.

We are given ‘h’ is equal to 4. Applying this value we will have r² = 9 and r = 3. ie half the base.

When the cylinder is placed on its side the water level will be only upto this height.

Hence the answer is 3 feet.

5.       The present ratio of students to teachers at a certain school is 30 to 1. If the student enrollments were to increase by 50 students and the numbers of teachers were to increase by 5, the ratio of the teachers would then be 25 to 1.What is the present number of teachers?

Ans: 15

Let ‘s’ be the initial number of students and ‘t’ the initial number of teachers.

Then we have the ratio s/t = 30/1. ->  s = 30t.

After 50 students and 5 teachers join the new ratio becomes –>  s+50/t+5 = 25/1

Substituting the value of  ‘s’ as 30t

We have a new equation->  30t + 50 = 25t + 125. Solving, we get the value of ‘t’ as 15.

Hence, the numbers of teachers initially were 15.

6.       College T has 1000 students. Of the 200 students majoring in one or more of the sciences, 130 are majoring in Chemistry and 150 are majoring in Biology. If at least 30 of the students are not majoring in either Chemistry or Biology, then the number of students majoring in both Chemistry and Biology could be any number from…..

Ans: between 110 and 130

Total students majoring in Sciences = 200

Students majoring in Chemistry        = 130

Students majoring in Biology             = 150

               Students majoring in both  ->  130 + 150 – 200 -> 80

                Students not majoring in Chemistry or biology = 30

                Thus students majoring in both Chemistry and Biology -> 80 + 30 = 110.

                Since the number of students majoring in Chemistry is only 130

                We could assume the range as between 110 and 130 for students majoring in both.

7.       Kelly and Chris are moving into a new city. Both of them love books and thus packed several boxes with books. If Chris packed 60% of the total number of boxes, what was the ratio of the number of boxes Kelly packed to the number of boxes Chris packed?

Ans: 2 : 3

An easy question to answer. If Chis had packed 60% of the boxes then Kelly would have packed the remaining 40% of boxes. Thus the ratio of boxes packed by Kelly and Chris is 40% : 60% or 2 : 3.

8.       A drug that is highly effective in treating many types of infection can, at present, be obtained only from the bark of the ibora, a tree that is quite rare in the wild. It takes the bark of 5,000 trees to make one kilogram of the drug. It follows, therefore, that continued production of the drug must inevitably lead to the ibora's extinction. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

(A)   The drug made from ibora bark is dispensed to doctors from a central authority.

(B)   The drug made from ibora bark is expensive to produce.

(C)   The leaves of the ibora are used in a number of medical products.

(D)   The ibora can be propagated from cuttings and grown under cultivation.

(E)    The ibora generally grows in largely inaccessible places.

Ans: (D)

9.       Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every 40 second, and Machine B produces bolts at a uniform rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If the two machines run simultaneously, how many seconds will it take for them to produce a total of 200 bolts?

Ans: 25 seconds

Machine A in 40 seconds produce 120 bolts. Ie in one second it produces 3 bolts.

Machine B in 20 seconds produce 100 bolts. Ie in one second it produces 5 bolts.

Thus in one second both A & B would produce 3 + 5 = 8 bolts.

Hence to produce 200 bolts both A & B would take 200/8 = 25 seconds.

10.   Wood smoke contains dangerous toxins that cause changes in human cells. Because wood smoke presents such a high health risk, legislation is needed to regulate the use of open-air fires and wood burning stoves.

Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the argument above?
(A) The amount of dangerous toxins contained in wood smoke is much less than the amount contained in an equal volume of automobile exhaust.
(B) Within the jurisdiction covered by the proposed legislation, most heating and cooking is done with oil or natural gas.
(C) Smoke produced by coal-burning stoves is significantly more toxic than smoke from wood-burning stoves.
(D) No significant beneficial effect on air quality would result if open-air fires were banned within the jurisdiction covered by the proposed legislation.
(E) In valleys where wood is used as the primary heating fuel, the concentration of smoke results in poor air quality.

Ans: (E)

  

Infosys Reasoning (Recent) - 2

Infosys Reasoning (Recent) - 2

Directions 1-5: In each question below are given three Statements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given Statements disregarding commonly known facts.

1.       Statements:
Some cycles are busses.  All cars are buses.  Some buses are trains.

Conclusions:
I. All cars are cycles.
II. Some trains are buses.
III. Some trains are cars.

(1) None follows             

(2) Only I and II follow   

(3) Only land III follow   

(4) Only II and III follow                               

(5) None of these
Ans:  (4)

2.       Statements:

All pencils are sticks.  Some sticks are notes.  All diaries are notes.

Conclusions:
I. Some notes are diaries.
II. Some sticks are pencils.
III. Some diaries are sticks.

(1) All follow
(2) Only I follow
(3) Only I and II follow
(4) Only II follows
(5) None of these
Ans:  (5)

3.       Statements:

Some buds are leaves.  No leaf is fruit.  Some fruits are buds.

Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are leaves.
II. All buds are fruits.
III. Some leaves are buds.

(1) Only I or II follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) None follows
(5) None of these
 Ans:  (2)

4.       Statements:

Some birds are animals.  All animals are rivers.  Some rivers are lions.

Conclusions:
I. Some lions are animals
II. Some rivers are birds
III. No animal is lion

(1) Only II follows
(2) Only either I or III follows
(3)  I and II follows
(4)  Only either II or III follow
(5) None of these
Ans:  (3)

5.       Statements:

All boxes are pans.  Some boxes are jugs.  Some jugs are glasses.

Conclusions:
I. Some glasses are boxes
II. No glass is box
III. Some jugs are pans                                                                                                     
IV. No jug is pan

(1) Only I and II follows

(2) Either I or II and III follows

(3)  Only III follows

(4)  Either I or II , and  either  III or IV  follow

(5) None of these
 Ans:  (3)

Directions 6-10 Use the following answer choices for the questions below.
A.   Statement 1 alone is sufficient but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
B.   Statement 2 alone is sufficient but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
C.    Both statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement is sufficient alone.
D.    Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
E.     Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data is needed to answer the statements.

6.        If the average size of 3 accounts is $1 million, is the smallest account less than $500,000?

1.      The largest account is $1.3 million.
2.      One of the accounts is $0.7 million.
Ans:  (C)

7.       Is the product of x and y greater than 60?

1.      The sum of x and y is greater than 60.
2.      Each of the variables is greater than 2.
Ans:  (A)

8.       What is the value of y?

1.      y - 3 = 2
2.      y2 = 25
Ans: A

9.       What was the percent increase of Company A's stock between June 1 and June 30, 2000?

1.      The stock gained $5 in value during June 2000.
2.      The stock rose 12% during the first half of the month.
Ans:  (E)

10.   Which company reported the larger dollar increase in earnings?

1.      Company A reported that its earnings increased by 5%.
2.      Company B reported that its earnings increased by 7%.
Ans:  (E)

11.    Ramesh starting from a fixed point goes 15 km towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?

(A) 5 metres
(B) 10 metres
(C) 20 metres
(D) 15 metres
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans: (B)

12.   Sonalika goes 12 km towards North from a fixed point and then she goes 8 km towards South from there. In the end she goes 3 km towards east. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?

(A) 7 km East
(B) 5 km West

(C) 7 km West
(D) 5 km North-East
(E)  None of these
Ans: (D)

13.   Sunita goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes 15 km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?

(A) 45 km, East
(B) 15 km, East
(C) 45 km, West
(D) 45 Km, North
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)

14.   Kanchan goes 5 m towards east from a fixed point N and then 35 km after turning to her left. Again she goes 10 metres after turning to her right. After this she goes 35 m after turning to her right. How far is she from N?

(A) 40 m
(B) At N

(C) 10 m
(D) 15 m
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)

15.   Shri Prakash walked 40 metres facing towards North. From there he walked 50 metres after turning to his left.  After this he walked 40 metres after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from his starting point?

(A) 40 m, North
(B) 50 m, West
(C) 10 m, East
(D) 10 m, West
(E) None of these
Ans: (B) 

Numerical Ability Questions - Bank Exams

Numerical Ability Questions – Bank Exams

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25                       2. 26                       3. 27                       4. 30                       5. 26
Ans: (3) 

Let the three consecutive numbers divisible by 3 be { x + (x+3) + (x+6)}

It is given x + (x+3) + (x+6) = 72. Thus the value of x is 21 and the highest of the three is x+6 -> 27

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8                     2. 4/9                     3. 2/8                     4. 3/8                     5. 5/8
Ans: (4)           Easy. Can be answered from the choices

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36                       2. 37                       3. 42                       4. 29                       5. 47
Ans: (2) 

Let us assume (640 – 11) is divisible by ‘x’. Then ‘x’ also divides 710-7 and 1526-9

Thus we have ‘x’ that can divide 629, 703 and 1517. The HCF of these three numbers -> 37 is the answer.

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29                       2. 30                       3. 24                       4. 25                       5. 28
Ans: (3)

Let J be Jayesh’s age and his difference from Anil and Prashant be ‘x’. Then we have Anil’s age as

J+x and Prashant’s age J-x.

We are given the sum of Anil’s and Prashant’s age as 48.

This gives us an equation (J+x) + (J-x) 48. Solving we get the value of J as 24 ie Jayesh’s age.

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28                2. Rs. 36                3. Rs. 49                4. Rs. 72                5. Rs. 50
Ans: (2)

Let ‘x’ be the rupee coin. Then 50 paise will be x/2 and 25 paise x/4.

The coins are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5    thus we have 2x + 3x/2 + 5x/4 = 114. Solving we get

The value of ‘x’as 24. Hence the number of 50 paise coins are 3x/2 -> 36 Rupees.

6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4/5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:
1. Rs. 78,000       2. Rs. 78,500       3. Rs. 80,000       4. Rs. 85,000       5. Rs. 87,500
Ans: (5)

At 1.3% the premium amount works out to Rs 910. Hence the insured value of the tempo is

910 / 1.3 -> 700 * 100 -> 70000. This insured value is 4/5 of the original value. Hence the

Original value is 70000 x 5/4 -> Rs 87,500.

7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1. 19                       2. 18                       3. 24                       4. 22                       5. 23
Ans: (2)

At Rs 40/- the man loses 20%. Hence the cost price is 40 x 100/80 = Rs 50/-. Thus 45 lemons cost price is Rs 50/-. Cost of one lemon is 50/45 -> Rs 10/9.

Selling at Rs 24 gives a profit of 20%. Hence the cost price is 24* 100/120 = Rs 20/-

Since the cost of one lemon is Rs 10/9  the number of lemons to be sold for Rs 20/- will be

20 / 10/9 -> 20 x 9/10 -> 18 lemons.

8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:
1. 10                       2. 16                       3. 20                       4. 22                       5. 18
Ans: (2)

9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1. Rs. 320             2. Rs. 345             3. Rs. 355             4. Rs. 380             5. None of these
Ans: (2)

A+B are to do 19/23 work. Hence C will do 1 – 19/23 -> 4/23 work.

B+C are to do 8/23 work. Hence B will be doing 8/23 – 4/23 -> 4/23 work.

So, A will be doing 19/23 – 4/23 -> 15/23 work. Thus the ratio of work done by

A : B : C  ::  15 : 4 : 4. Total amount agreed for the work is Rs 529.

Thus A’s share of the money will be 529 x 15/23 -> Rs 345.

10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately how much?
1. 10.4 km/hr     2. 10.8 km/hr     3. 12 km/hr         4. 14 km/hr         5. 13 km/hr
Ans: (2)

Time taken to travel a distance of 10 km at a speed of 12 kmph is 10/12-> 5/6 hour -> 50 minutes.

Time taken to travel a distance of 12 km at a speed of 10 kmph is 12/10-> 6/5 hours -> 1 hour 12 minutes.

Thus to total time taken to travel a distance of 22 km is 2 hours and 2 minutes -> 122 minutes.

Hence the average speed for the entire journey will be 22/122 * 60 _> 10.8 kmph.

11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?
1. 1/19                  2. 27/29                3. 35/256              4. 1/221                5. 35/121
Ans: (4)

There are four cards that are King. Thus the answer is arrived at 4C2/52C2

12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1. 13%                   2. 10.25%             3. 15%                   4. 11%                   5. None of these
Ans: (2)

Apply the formula P (1+R/100)ⁿ – P. Assume P as 100, ‘n’ as two since the interest is compounded twice in a year and R half of 10% ie 5%.

  

13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1. 11%                   2. 12%                   3. 20%                   4. 28%                   5. 33%
Ans: (4)

Assume the original measurement of the Towel as Length 100 and Breadth 50. Area is 500 Sq. units

After bleaching length shrunk by 20% and breadth by 10%. So, the new length and breadth are

80 and 45. The new area is 80 * 45 = 360 sq. units. Thus the reduction in area is 500 – 360 = 140 sq. units.

The percentage of reduction in area is 140 x 100/500 -> 28%

Accenture - Verbal & Reasoning - 2

Accenture – Verbal & Reasoning - 2                                                       

Directions (1-5): Read the following passage and answer the questions below.

Despite the loss of colonies, the industrialized countries of the west were still in an excellent position to influence events in the third world, and to do so in ways which partially offset the effects of decolonization. However virulently third leaders might attack imperialism, they still needed the markets and investments which the former colonial powers provided. Hence, most third world countries remained within the global capitalist system, regardless of their political status. Although a few social revolutionary changes came in many countries, the system was superseded by neo – colonialism. Whereas the former involved direct rule by an imperial power, the latter referred to situations in which underdeveloped nations achieved political independence but remained economically dependent on the west.

Nonetheless, social revolutionaries and also some nationalists attacked western property as well as western political authority, and therefore posed a greater challenge than the ideal neo – colonial solutions. If the newly independent nations of the third world refrained from expropriating western investment and profits, and continued to allow access to their markets, resources and cheap labour, then the west might live with decolonization. But third world revolutionaries and various nationalists proposed to take control of foreign capital while the former hoped to move towards some type of socialism. In addition, revolutionaries usually identified with soviet bloc, though the People’s Republic of China assumed a more independent stance. The effect was to threaten western strategic as well as economic interests. Moreover, the specter of revolution had a particular impact on Washington and colored America’s perception of the third world generally. It was a most important factor shaping US policy. Hence, the efforts of Washington to develop counter – revolutionary strategies, either to anticipate and guide change into safe channels or to destabilize leftist or other unfriendly regimes which had succeeded in coming to power. The problem was that the very success of such efforts perpetuated the conditions which had led to social revolution in the first place and guaranteed that the history of the third world would be one of ongoing conflict.

1. Western countries are able to influence the third world countries because

(a)  the third world countries offered no resistance

(b)  the third world attacked the policies of western countries.

(c)  the markets and investments of the western countries always attracted the third world.

(d)  none of these

Ans: (c)

2. In most countries the old colonialism was replaced by

(a) Marxist governments             

(b) Socialism

(c) Imperialism

(d) Neo – colonialism

Ans: (d)

3. The revolutionaries in the third world,

(a) endorsed the western supremacy,

(b) remained neutral

(c) Posed a challenge to the western domination,

(d) followed the Chinese example

Ans: (c)

4. Washington is interested in

(a) Encouraging leftist regimes,

(b) promoting terrorism

(c) Destabilizing leftist or unfriendly regimes,

(d) none of these

Ans: (c)

5. It is hinted that

(a) The history of third world would be peaceful

(b) The history of third world would be decided by leftist revolutions

(c) China is not interested in the history of the third world.

(d) The history of the third world would be conflict – ridden for a long time.

Ans: (d)

Choose the correct / most appropriate word/s to fill in the gap in the sentences given below.

6) As a leader _____ the B2B market, all employees take part in leading-edge 

    Technology.

a) to                       b) with                  c) in                        d) between

Ans: (c)

7) In addition to the simple test there ______  Shorthand assignments.

a) is                        b) are                    c) were                 d) must

Ans: (b)

8)  I didn’t set _________ to do this but I’m pleased with the result.

a) in                       b) out                    c) on                      d) down

Ans: (b)

9) This looks too heavy,______________ pick it up?

a) Can I                 b) may I               c) need I              d) would I

Ans: (d)

10) I am glad so many people have passed the test. In fact, there were_________ who

      haven’t.

a) little                  b) a little              c) few                   d) a few

Ans: (c)

11) Pope John Paul II ___________ more than 90 countries.

a) has visited      b) was visited    c) visits                 d) has been visiting

Ans: (a)

12) Have you given up______________.

a) To smoke       b) Smoke             c) Some smoking              d) Smoking

Ans: (d)

13) There were many dogs in the park. One dog was ___ Dalmatian.

a) an                      b) a                        c) the                    d) none of the above

Ans: (b)

14) Pandas and ___ tigers are both endangered animals.

a) a                         b) an                      c) the                    d) nothing

Ans: (c)

15) He broke ___ glass when he was washing dishes.

a) a                         b) the                    c) nothing            d) an

Ans: (a)